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234 (1 – A )

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±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ

¯©ìÐÜr ±Ü£ÅPæ (±Ü£ÅPæ II)

ÓÜÊÜá¿á : 2 WÜípæWÜÙÜá WÜÄÐÜu AíPÜWÜÙÜá : 200

ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá 1. ±ÜÄàûæ ±ÝÅÃÜí»ÜWæãívÜ ñÜûÜ|Êæà J.Gí.BÃ…. EñÜ¤ÃÜÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÍæÅà~¿á®Üá° WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜ Êæã¨ÜÆá, D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ

ÊÜáá©ÅñÜÊÝWÜ Ü̈ A¥ÜÊÝ ÖÜÄ©ÃÜáÊÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ æ̈à ±Üâo CÆÉ©ÃÜáÊÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ÊÜáá©ÅñÜÊÝWÜ Ü̈ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá CñÝÂ© JÙÜWæãíwÆÉÊæíŸá¨Ü®Üá° ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜÄàüÓÜñÜPÜR̈ Üáª. ÊæáàÈ®Ü ¿ÞÊÜâ æ̈à ¨æãàÐÜ PÜívÜáŸí Ü̈ÈÉ A¨Ü®Üá° ×í£ÃÜáXÔ Æ»ÜÂËÃÜáÊÜ ÍæÅà~¿á ±ÜÄ±Üä|ìÊÝ Ü̈ ¸æàÃæ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ±Üvæ¿áñÜPÜR¨Üáª.

2. A»ÜÂ¦ì¿áá ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ÍæÅà~ A, B, C A¥ÜÊÝ D A®Üá° ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ ÊÜáñÜá¤ ®æãàí Ü̈~ ÓÜíTæÂ¿á®Üá° OMR EñÜ¤ÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áÈÉ A¨ÜPÝRX J¨ÜXÓÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ÓÜ§ÙÜ¨ÜÈÉ ŸÃæ¨Üá ÓÜíPæàñÜ (G®… Pæãàv…) WæãÚÓÜ¸æàPÜá. ÖÝWÜã ¯WÜ©ñÜ ÓÜ§ÙÜ Ü̈ÈÉ ñÝÊÜâ ÊÜáñÜá¤ ÓÜíËàûÜPÜÃÜá ÓÜ× ÊÜÞwÃÜáÊÜâ¨Ü®Üá° SbñÜ ±ÜwÔPæãÙÜÛ̧ æàPÜá. J.Gí.BÃ…. ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ £ÚÔÃÜáÊÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÞ×£¿á®Üá° »Ü£ì ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ Ü̈á/G®… Pæãàv… ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ¨Üá A»ÜÂ¦ìWÜÙÜ gÊÝ¸ÝªÄ¿ÞXÃÜáñÜ¤¨æ. Jí¨Üá ÊæàÙæ »Ü£ì ÊÜÞvÜ©¨ÜªÈÉ/ñÜ²³¨ÜÈÉ AíñÜÖÜ J.Gí.BÃ…. EñÜ¤ÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° £ÃÜÓÜRÄÓÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ Ü̈á.

3. ±ÜPÜR̈ ÜÈÉ J Ü̈XÔÃÜáÊÜ aèPÜ Ü̈ÇæÉà ¯ÊÜá¾ ®æãàí Ü̈~ ÓÜíTæÂ¿á®Üá°

®ÜÊÜáã©ÓÜ æ̧àPÜá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ ¸æàÃæ H®Ü®Üã° ŸÃæ¿á¸ÝÃÜ¨Üá.

4. D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ 100 ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜWæãíwÃÜáñÜ¤ æ̈. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°¿áá 4 ±ÜÅ£QÅÁáWÜÙÜ®Üá° (EñÜ¤ÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá°) JÙÜWæãíwÃÜáñÜ¤ æ̈. ¯àÊÜâ EñÜ¤ÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜ¸æàPæ¯ÓÜáÊÜ EñÜ¤ÃÜÊÜ®Üá° BÁáR ÊÜÞwPæãÚÛ. Jí Ü̈á ÊæàÙæ AÈÉ Jí¨ÜQRíñÜ ÖæaÜác ÓÜÄ¿Þ Ü̈ EñÜ¤ÃÜWÜÚÊæÁáí¨Üá ¯àÊÜâ »ÝËÔ¨ÜÃæ ¯ÊÜáWæ AñÜáÂñÜ¤ÊÜáÊǣ ÓÜáÊÜ EñÜ¤ÃÜPæR WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞw. H®æà A¨ÜÃÜã ±ÜÅ£ ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ ¯àÊÜâ PæàÊÜÆ Jí Ü̈á EñÜ¤ÃÜÊÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞñÜÅ BÁáR ÊÜÞvÜ æ̧àPÜá.

5. GÇÝÉ EñÜ¤ÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ J Ü̈XÓÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅñæÂàPÜ EñÜ¤ÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ÊæáàÇæ PæàÊÜÆ PÜ±Üâ³ A¥ÜÊÝ ¯àÈ ÍÝÀá¿á ¸ÝÇ…±ÝÀáíp… ±æ °̄®ÜÈÉ ÊÜÞñÜÅ WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜ æ̧àPÜá. J.Gí.BÃ…. EñÜ¤ÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ËÊÜÃÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá.

6. GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ ÓÜÊÜÞ®Ü AíPÜWÜÙÜá. GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ EñÜ¤ÄÔÄ. ±ÜÅ£ ñÜ±Üâ³ EñÜ¤ÃÜPæR ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ ¯WÜ©±ÜwÔ Ü̈ AíPÜWÜÙÜ ¼ (0.25) ÃÜÐÜár AíPÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° PÜÙæ¿áÇÝWÜáÊÜâ Ü̈á.

7. bñÜá¤ PæÆÓÜPÝRX ÖÝÙæWÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÓæàÄÓÜÇÝX¨æ. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á C®Üá°Ú Ü̈ ¿ÞÊÜ »ÝWÜ¨ÜÈÉ¿áã ¯àÊÜâ ¿ÞÊÜ Äà£¿á WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR̈ ÜªÆÉ.

8. ±ÜÄàûæ¿á ÊÜááPÝ¤¿áÊÜ®Üá° ÓÜãbÓÜáÊÜ Aí£ÊÜá WÜípæ ¸ÝÄÔ Ü̈ ñÜûÜ|Êæà EñÜ¤ÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ C®Ý°ÊÜâ¨æà WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ Ü̈®Üá° ¯ÈÉÓÜ¸æàPÜá. ÓÜíËàûÜPÜÃÜá Ÿí¨Üá ¯ÊÜá¾ÈÉÃÜáÊÜ EñÜ¤ÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ñÜÊÜá¾ ÊÜÍÜPæR ±Üvæ̈ ÜáPæãívÜá ÇæPÜRP æR ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãÙÜáÛÊÜÊÜÃæWÜã ¯ÊÜá¾ ¯ÊÜá¾ BÓÜ®Ü Ü̈ÈÉÁáà PÜáÚ£ÃÜñÜPÜR Ü̈áª.

9. ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PÜ®Ü°vÜ ÊÜáñÜá¤ BíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿áÈÉÃÜáñÜ¤Êæ. PÜ®Ü°vÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ÓÜí¨æàÖÜ EípÝ Ü̈Ãæ, Ü̈¿áËoár BíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ® Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Wæãí¨ÜÆWÜÚ¨ÜªÃÜã BíWÜÉ»ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙæà Aí£ÊÜáÊÝXÃÜáñÜ¤¨æ.

Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this booklet.

A ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ : 234

*234/A*

®æãàí¨Ü~ ÓÜíTæÂ

¿ÞÊÜâ æ̈à Äà£¿á Êæã æ̧çÇ… ¶æäà®…, PÝÂÇ…PÜáÂÇæàoÃ… ÊÜáñÜá¤ CñÜÃæ Äà£¿á GÇæPÝó¯P…/PÜÊÜáãÂ¯PæàÐÜ®… ÓÝ«Ü®ÜWÜÙÜá CñÝÂ©WÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜÄàûÝ Pæàí¨ÜÅ Ü̈ BÊÜÃÜ|¨æãÙÜWæ ñÜÃÜáÊÜâ Ü̈®Üá° ¯Ðæà˜Ô¨æ.

234 (2 – A )

1. ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀ£ÀÄ ¸ÀAUÀæ»¹ vÀAzÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀÅ

EzÀPÉÌ GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.

(1) dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ°è ºÉZÀÑ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è E½PÉ

(2) D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è ºÉZÀÑ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ°è KjPÉ

(3) D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è KjPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ°è E½PÉ

(4) MAzÀÄ D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è KjPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è E½PÉ

2. PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¥ÀzÀÞwAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV,

C£ÀÄªÀiÁ£Á¸ÀàzÀ ¸Á®UÀ¼À «µÀAiÀÄzÀ°è »Ã£À

¸Á®UÀ½UÉ CªÀPÁ±ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ?

I. ¤gÀAvÀgÀvÉ CA±À (PÀ¤ì¸ÉÖ¤ì)

II. §»gÀAUÀ¥Àr¸ÀÄ«PÉ (r¸ïPÉÆèÃ±Àgï)

III. ¸ÀAgÀPÀëuÉ (PÀ£ïPÀìgïªÉÃ±À£ï)

IV. ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«£À DzsÁgÀzÀ°è (ªÉÄnÃjAiÀiÁ°n)

¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉ¼ÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹ :

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ

(3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ

(4) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ

3. ¨ÁåAPï jPÀ¤ì°AiÉÄÃµÀ£ï ¸ÉÖÃmïªÉÄAl£ÀÄß

vÀAiÀiÁj¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ F ªÀåvÁå¸ÀzÀ PÁgÀtUÀ¼À£ÀÄß

¥ÀvÉÛ ºÀZÀÑ®Ä

(1) PÁåµï§ÄPï£À PÁåµï PÁ®A£À ²®ÄÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Á¸ï§ÄPï£À ²®ÄÌ

(2) PÁåµï§ÄPï£À ¨ÁåAPï PÁ®A£À ²®ÄÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Á¸ï§ÄPï ²®ÄÌ

(3) PÁå±ï§ÄPï£À ¨ÁåAPï PÁ®A£À ²®ÄÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁå±ï§ÄPï£À PÁå±ï PÁ®A£À ²®ÄÌ

(4) PÁå±ï§ÄPï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Á¸ï§ÄPï£À ²®ÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ

4. ªÀiÁåaAUï ¥ÀzÀÞwAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV AiÀiÁªÀ

CA±ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¸À¨ÉÃPÀÄ?

(1) qÉ©mïìUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉærmïUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ

(2) D¹ÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ

(3) RZÀÄðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DzÁAiÀÄUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ

(4) dªÀiÁUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆªÀð ¥ÁªÀwUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ

5. M§â ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ JµÀÖgÀ ªÀÄnÖUÉ PÁvÀgÀ£ÁVzÁÝ£É,

PÉÆÃ¥ÀUÉÆArzÁÝ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨sÁªÀ

Kj½vÀUÀ½UÉÆ¼ÀUÁVzÁÝ£É,

¨sÁªÀ£ÁvÀäPÀ£ÁVzÁÝ£É J£ÀÄßªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß

vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ _______

(1) £ÀgÀ zË§ð®åvÉ

(2) ¸Àé ¤AiÀÄAvÀæt

(3) ¸ÀQæAiÀÄ ªÀåQÛvÀé

(4) DvÀä UËgÀªÀ

234 (3 – A )

1. Capital brought in by the proprietor is an

example of;

(1) Increase in liability and decrease in

asset

(2) Increase in asset and increase in

liability

(3) Increase in asset and decrease in

liability

(4) Increase in one asset and decrease in

other asset

2. In respect of doubtful debts, provisions for

bad debts are made on the basis of which of

the following convention(s):

I. Consistency

II. Disclosure

III. Conservatism

IV. Materiality

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only

(3) (III) Only

(4) Both (I) and (II)

3. Bank Reconciliation Statement is prepared

in order to detect the causes for the

difference between

(1) The balances as per cash column of

Cash Book and the Pass Book.

(2) The balances as per bank column of

Cash Book and the Pass Book.

(3) The balances as per bank column of

Cash Book and balances as per cash

column of Cash Book

(4) The balances as per Cash Book and

the Pass Book.

4. As per the matching principle which items

should be matched?

(1) Debits with credits

(2) Assets with liabilities

(3) Expenses with revenues

(4) Accruals with prepaids

5. The degree to which a person is anxious,

irritable, temperamental and moody refers to

(1) Neuroticism

(2) Self-monitoring

(3) Proactive personality

(4) Self-esteem

234 (4 – A )

6. F PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ AiÉÆÃd£Á ªÀUÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ,

AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ°è ¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀ CªÀPÁ±ÀUÀ¼À

«±ÉèÃµÀuÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨ÉzÀjPÉ ºÁUÀÆ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ

±ÀQÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ zË§ð®åUÀ¼ÀÄ CqÀPÀªÁVªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

vÀªÀÄä ¥Àj¸ÀgÀzÀ°è ¥ÀgÀuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁV

¸Àà¢üð¸À®Ä ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ jÃw ¹zÀÞ

ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ JA§ CA±ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß

M¼ÀUÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÀÛzÉ?

(1) C¯ÁáªÀ¢ü AiÉÆÃd£É

(2) PÁAiÀÄðvÀAvÀæ PË±À®åzÀ (gÀPÀëuÁvÀäPÀ) AiÉÆÃd£É

(3) G¥ÁAiÀÄPÀgÀ AiÉÆÃd£É

(4) PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ AiÉÆÃd£É

7. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄ

¸ÀªÀÄPÁ°Ã£À ªÀiÁUÀðªÀ®è?

I. ¹¸ÀÖªÀiïì C¥ÉÆæÃZï

II. PÀAnAeÉ¤ì C¥ÉÆæÃZï

III. ºÁxÉÆ£ïð ¸ÀÖrÃ¸ï C¥ÉÆæÃZï

IV. ¸ÉÊAn¦üPï ªÀiÁå£ÉÃeïªÉÄAmï C¥ÉÆæÃZï

¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉ¼ÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ

(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II ªÀiÁvÀæ

(4) III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV JgÀqÀÆ ¸ÀºÀ

8. ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è PÉ¼ÀV£À

AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄÄ/ªÀÅ ¸ÀvÀåªÁzÀzÀÄÝ? I. ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀªÀÄ¸ÉåUÀ¼À §UÉÎ

PÀAqÀÄ »rAiÀÄ®Ä UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á «zsÁ£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß §¼À¸À¯ÁUÀÄªÀÅ¢®è.

II. ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀªÀÄ¸ÉåUÀ¼À §UÉÎ PÀAqÀÄ »rAiÀÄ®Ä UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á «zsÁ£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß §¼À¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

III. ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á £ÀAvÀgÀzÀ vÀ¤SÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß £ÀqÉ¸À®Ä UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á «zsÁ£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸À®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®è


(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ (4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ

9. F PÉ¼ÀV£À ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ vÀ¥ÀÄà? I. C¢üPÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀªÀjUÉ

¨ÉA§°¸À®Ä, ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸À®ºÉ ¤ÃqÀ®Ä ¸Àé®à C¢üPÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß¼Àî ºÀÄzÉÝUÀ½zÀÄÝ EªÀgÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÁÖ¥sï CxÁjn J£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ.

II. M§â ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ E§âgÀÄ ¥Àæ§AzsÀPÀjUÉ ªÀgÀ¢ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÉ£ÀÄßªÀ ¤ªÀðºÀuÁ vÀvÀéªÀ£ÀÄß AiÀÄÆ¤n D¥sï PÀªÀiÁåAqï J£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ.

III. ºÀAUÀÄ CxÀªÁ ªÀ»¹zÀ PÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆwðªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ¤jÃPÀëuÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß CPËAl©°n J£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ.

IV. M§â ¥Àæ§AzsÀPÀ£ÀÄ zÀPÀëvÉ¬ÄAzÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁV ¤ªÀð»¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ ¹§âA¢ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Áàöå£ï D¥sï PÀAmÉÆæÃ¯ï J£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ.

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) III ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ (4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV JgÀqÀÆ

234 (5 – A )

6. Which of the following categories of

planning involves analyzing competitive

opportunities and threats, as well as the

strengths and weaknesses of the

organization, and then determining how to

position the organization to compete

effectively in their environment?

(1) Short-term planning

(2) Strategic planning

(3) Tactical planning

(4) Operational planning.

7. Which of the following is/are not

contemporary approach of management?

I. Systems Approach

II. Contingency Approach

III. Hawthorne Studies Approach

IV. Scientific Management Approach


given below :

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only


(4) Both (III) and (IV)

8. Which of the following statements is/are

true with respect to marketing research?

I. Qualitative research methods cannot be used to investigate issues in

marketing research.

II. Qualitative research methods may be used to investigate issues in marketing

research.

III. Qualitative research methods cannot be used to conduct post-research

investigations.

Select the correct answer using the

codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only

(3) Both (I) and (III)

(4) Both (II) and (III)


false?

I. Positions with some authority that

have been created to support, assist,

and advise those holding line authority

is called staff authority.

II. The management principle that each

person should report to two managers

is known as unity of command.

III. The obligation or expectation to

perform any assigned duties is referred

to as accountability.

IV. The number of employees a manager can efficiently and effectively manage

is termed as span of control.


given below :

(1) (I) Only

(2) (III) Only


(4) Both (II) and (IV)

234 (6 – A )

10. ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï «Ä±ÀætªÀÅ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV EzÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄvÀÛzÉ. I. ¨É¯É

II. GvÀà£Àß

III. ¥ÀzÉÆÃ£Àßw IV. ¸ÀÜ¼À

V. GvÀàwÛ


(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) V ªÀiÁvÀæ (4) I, II, III ªÀÄvÀÄ IV

11. ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj ¨sÁUÀUÀ½UÉ PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è

AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ CvÀåªÀ±ÀåPÀªÁzÀ

ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀªÁVzÉ?

I. KPÀgÀÆ¥ÀvÉ

II. ªÀiÁ¥À£À ¸ÁzsÀåvÉ

III. ¯Á¨sÀ ¸ÁzsÀåvÉ

IV. C£ÉÃPÀ gÀÆ¥ÀvÉ



(2) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ

(3) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III

(4) II, III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV

12. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢¹j:

I vÀªÀÄä vÀªÀÄä PÉ®¸ÀUÀ¼À°è ªÁ¸ÀÛªÀªÁV d£ÀgÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀ AiÀiÁªÀ PÉ®¸ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀgÉAzÀÄ ¤µÀÌ¶ð¸À®Ä C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ¥Àr¹zÀ O¥ÀZÁjPÀ ¥ÀzÀÞw

a. ªÀÈwÛ «ªÀgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

II MAzÀÄ ªÀÈwÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁ¥Àðr¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀjAzÀ CxÀªÁ §zÀ¯Á¬Ä¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀjAzÀ ºÉÃUÉ ºÉZÀÄÑ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁUÀÄªÀAvÉ ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ

b. ªÀÈwÛAiÀÄ ªÀtð£É

III PÉ®¸ÀzÀ°è£À PÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ, dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀªÁ®ÄUÀ¼À MAzÀÄ ¥ÀnÖ

c. ªÀÈwÛ «£Áå¸À

IV PÉ®¸ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ°ègÀ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ PË±À®åUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåðUÀ¼À §UÉÎ ZÀZÉð

d. ªÀÈwÛ «±ÉèÃµÀuÉ

F PÉ¼ÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹

I II III IV

(1) a d c b

(2) d c b a

(3) c b a d

(4) a b c d

13. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ CxÀªÁ ¨sÀ«µÀåzÀ ºÀÄzÉÝAiÀÄ£ÀÄß

vÀÄA§®Ä ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ CºÀðvÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß¼Àî d£ÀgÀ£ÀÄß

DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä EgÀÄªÀ PÀæªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ

(1) DAiÉÄÌ

(2) £ÉÃªÀÄPÁw

(3) ¥Àæ²PÀët (NjAiÀÄAmÉÃ±À£ï)

(4) ªÀÈwÛ §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ

234 (7 – A )

10. Marketing mix generally comprises of

I. Price

II. Product

III. Promotion

IV. Place

V. Production


given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only

(3) (V) Only

(4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

11. Which of the following are the essential

criteria for effective segmentation?

I. Homogeneity

II. Measurability

III. Profitability

IV. Heterogeneity


given below



(3) (I), (II) and (III)

(4) (II), (III) and (IV)

12. Match the following correctly

I. A formal system

developed to determine

what tasks people actually

perform in their jobs

a. Job specifications

II. How a job can be

modified or changed to be

more effective

b. Job description

III. A list of tasks, duties,

and responsibilities of a

job

c. Job design

IV. Discussion of the skills

and abilities the person

must have to perform the

job.

d. Job analysis


given below

I II III IV

(1) a d c b

(2) d c b a

(3) c b a d

(4) a b c d

13. The steps involved in choosing people who

have the right qualifications to fill a current

or future job opening :

(1) Selection

(2) Recruitment

(3) Orientation

(4) Job rotation

234 (8 – A )

14. ̧ ÀA¸ÉÜAiÉÆAzÀgÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀÄ¢ÃWÀð PÁ®zÀ°è CzÀgÉÆ¼ÀPÉÌ ªÀÄvÉÛ ºÀjzÀÄ §gÀÄªÀ FQén §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ G½¹PÉÆAqÀ UÀ½PÉAiÀÄ §ºÀÄ¥Á®Ä EzÀÝ°è CzÀgÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ£Àß¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ

(1) §ÄqÀªÉÄÃ¯ÁzÀ ¦gÀ«Äqï DPÀÈwAiÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É

(2) ¦gÀ«Äqï DPÀÈwAiÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É (3) ®A§ªÁzÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É (4) ¸ÀªÀiÁ£ÁAvÀgÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É

15. §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DyðPÀ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉ/UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ/ªÉ?

I. ¢ÃWÀðPÁ®zÀ D¹ÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀÈ¶Ö ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä ºÀÆqÀÄªÀ ¢ÃWÀðPÁ®zÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ §UÉÎ §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÉ. EzÀgÀ°è «wÛÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ ¢ÃWÁðªÀ¢üAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C¯ÁàªÀ¢üAiÀÄ JgÀqÀÆ D¹ÛUÀ¼À ¸ÀÈ¶×AiÀÄ£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.

II. «wÛÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ PÉÃAzÀæzÀ°è §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀégÀÆ¥À«zÉ. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ½®èzÉ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄÄ EgÀ®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®è. CAxÀºÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðUÀ¼À°è §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀPÉÌ ¸ÀªÀÄªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

III. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼À ªÉÆ§®UÀÄ ºÉÆgÀV£À ¸Á®zÀ MlÄÖ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£ÉUÉ ¸ÀªÀÄ£ÁVzÀÝgÉ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÉÆAzÀgÀ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ ¸ÀªÀÄvÉÆÃ°vÀªÉAzÀÄ ¥ÀjUÀtÂ¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. KPÉAzÀgÉ CAvÀºÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðUÀ¼À°è ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ D¹ÛUÀ¼ÀÄ £ÀµÀÖªÁzÀ ¥ÀPÀëzÀ°è ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ½UÉ ¥ÁªÀw¸À®Ä ¢ÃWÀðPÁ°Ã£À §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀÅ ¸ÁPÀ¶ÖzÉAiÉÄAzÀÄ ¨sÁ«¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ (4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ

16. E£ï¥sÁæ¸ÀÖçPÀÑgï °. £À°è «Ä.Dj¥sï ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ ªÀiÁå£ÉÃdgï DVzÁÝgÉ. ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P1) CxÀªÁ ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P2) £ÀÄß PÉÊUÉwÛPÉÆAqÀgÉ ºÀvÀÄÛ PÉÆÃn gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ (ºÉÆgÀ ºÀjªÀÅ) £ÀUÀzÀÄ RZÁðUÀÄvÀÛzÉAiÉÄAzÀÄ CªÀgÀÄ ¯ÉPÀÌ ºÁPÀÄvÁÛgÉ. DzÀgÀÆ P1 ¤AzÀ gÀÆ. 90.66 ®PÀëUÀ¼À ¤ªÀé¼À M¼ÀºÀjAiÀÄÄ«PÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ P2 ¤AzÀ gÀÆ.60.31 ®PÀë M¼ÀºÀjAiÀÄÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤jÃQë¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ. ¯Á¨sÀ ¸ÀÆZÀåAPÀ PI zÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀzÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV «Ä.DjÃ¥sïgÀªÀgÀÄ EzÀ£ÀÄß Dj¹PÉÆ¼Àî¨ÉÃPÀÄ

(1) ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P1) KPÉAzÀgÉ CzÀgÀ PI ªÀiË®åªÀÅ 10.07 PÉÌ ¸ÀªÀÄ DVzÉ




17. J¯ÉPÉÆÖçÃ ¸Áån °. AiÀÄ£ÀÄß 7% ¨ÁAqï£À 10 ®PÀë gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸ÁÖPï£À 20 ®PÀë gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ½AzÀ £ÀqÉ¸À¯ÁUÀÄwÛzÉ. ¸ÁÖPï£À°è 1.5£À ©ÃmÁ EzÉ. D¥ÀvÀÄÛgÀ»vÀ zÀgÀªÀÅ 4% DVzÉ. ªÀiÁPÉðmï j¸ïÌ ¦æÃ«ÄAiÀÄªÀiï 3.5% DVzÉ. PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉÃµÀ£ï MAzÀPÉÌ ªÀiÁfð£À¯ï vÉjUÉ zÀgÀªÀÅ 35% DVzÉ. J¯ÉPÉÆÖçÃ ¸ÁÌn °«ÄmÉqï£À ªÉÊmÉqï DªÀgÉÃeï PÁ¸ïÖ D¥sï PÁå¦l¯ï(WACC), ¸ÀÄªÀÄgÁV EgÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.

(1) 6.20%

(2) 7.70%

(3) 8.20%

(4) 9.10%

234 (9 – A )

14. If a firm’s capital structure has a large

proportion of equity capital and retained

earnings which have been ploughed back

into it over a considerably large period of

time, its capital structure is considered as

(1) Inverted Pyramid shaped Capital Structure

(2) Pyramid shaped Capital structure

(3) Vertical Capital Structure

(4) Horizontal Capital Structure


true with respect to Capital structure and

Financial structure?

I. Capital structure relates to long term capital deployment for creation of

long term assets whereas Financial

structure involves creation of both

long term and short term assets.

II. Capital structure is the core element of the financial structure. Capital

structure cannot exist without the

current liabilities and in such cases

capital structure shall be equal to the

financial structure.

III. The financial structure of a firm is considered to be a balanced one if the

amount of current liabilities is equal to

the capital structure net of outside debt

because in such cases the long term

capital is considered sufficient to pay

current liabilities in case of sudden

loss of current assets.


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only

(3) (III) Only


16. Mr. Arif is a project manager in

Infrastructure Ltd. He computes that there

will be a cash outflow of Rs.10 crore if

either project (P1) or project (P2) is

undertaken. However, he expects a net

present value of cash inflow of Rs.90.66

lakh from P1 and < 60.31 lakh from P2

respectively. According to Profitability

Index (PI) criterion Mr. Arif should select

(1) Project (P1) because its PI value is

equal to 10.07


equal to 7.03


equal to 12.02


equal to 13.02

17. Electro Scotty Limited is currently financed

with Rs. 1,000,000 of 7% bonds, and Rs.2,

000,000 of common stock. The stock has a

beta of 1.5, and the risk free rate is 4%, and

the market risk premium is 3.5%. The

marginal tax rate for a corporation is 35%.

The Weighted Average Cost of Capital

(WACC) of Electro Scotty Limited

approximately is

(1) 6.20%

(2) 7.70%

(3) 8.20%

(4) 9.10%.

234 (10 – A )

18. NPV ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IRR UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉ/UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ?

I. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ ¤ªÀé¼À ªÀiË®å «zsÁ£ÀzÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ §rØ zÀgÀªÀ£ÀÄß w½zÀ CA±ÀªÉAzÀÄ ¨sÁ«¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ºÁUÉAiÉÄÃ DAvÀjPÀ ªÀÄgÀÄ¥ÁªÀw zÀgÀzÀ «µÀAiÀÄzÀ°èAiÀÄÆ EzÀÄ w½¢zÉ.

II. JgÀqÀÆ «zsÁ£ÀUÀ¼À°è, ºÉÆ¸À ¥ÁæeÉPïÖUÀ¼À£ÀÄß jAiÀiÁ¬Äw zÀgÀzÀ°è £ÀUÀzÀÄ M¼ÀºÀjªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀÄgÀÄºÀÆqÀ®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®èªÉAzÀÄ H»¸À¯ÁVzÉ.

III. M¼ÀºÀj«£À DAvÀjPÀ zÀgÀzÀ «zsÁ£ÀªÀÅ M¼ÀºÀjAiÀÄÄªÀ £ÀUÀ¢¤AzÀ ºÀÆrzÀ ¤¢üAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀjµÀÖ §rØ¬ÄAzÀ ªÀÄgÀÄ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀgÀ §UÉÎ PÀAqÀÄ PÉÆ¼Àî®Ä ¥ÀæAiÀÄwß¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.


(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ



19. d£À¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÀÆ CA±ÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉÆæÃrüÃPÀj¸ÀÄªÀ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.

(1) ¥ÁågÁ«ÄÃlgï

(2) CAQ CA±À

(3) £ÀªÀÄÆ£É

(4) ªÀiÁ¥À£À

20. «Ä.gÁªÀÄ£ï 5 ®PÀëUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¨ÁåAPï£À°è dªÀiÁ ªÀiÁrzÀgÀÄ. ªÁ¶ðPÀªÁV 5% ¸ÀgÀ¼À §rØAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¨ÁåAPï ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ºÀvÀÄÛ ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À £ÀAvÀgÀ «Ä.gÁªÀÄ£ïUÉ zÉÆgÀPÀÄªÀ ªÉÆvÀÛªÀÅ

(1) 7.50 ®PÀë

(2) 5.50 ®PÀë

(3) 2.50 ®PÀë

(4) 2.25 ®PÀë

21. ̧ ÁzsÀåªÁUÀ§®è ªÀiË®åUÀ¼À£ÀÄß¼Àî JtÂ¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ CxÀªÁ ¥Àj«ÄvÀ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄÄ¼ÀîzÀÄ ªÉÃjAiÀÄ§¯ï ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.

(1) gÁåAqÀªÀiï ªÉÃjAiÀÄ§¯ï

(2) r¹ÌçÃmï ªÉÃjAiÀÄ§¯ï

(3) PÀAn£ÀÆåAiÀÄ¸ï ªÉÃjAiÀÄ§¯ï

(4) JPÉì÷ÖçÃ¤AiÀÄ¸ï ªÉÃjAiÀÄ§¯ï

234 (11 – A )


true with respect to NPV and IRR?

I. Under the net present value method

rate of interest is assumed as the

known factor. Similarly it is also

known in case of internal rate of return

method.

II. Under both the methods, it is assumed

that cash inflows cannot be re-invested

at the discount rate in the new

projects.

III. Internal rate of return method attempts

to find out the rate of interest which is

maximum to repay the invested fund

out of the cash inflows.


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only

(3) (III) Only


19. A number that summarizes some aspect of

the population as a whole is called as

(1) Parameter

(2) Statistic

(3) Sample

(4) Measurement

20. Mr. Raman deposited Rs.5 lakh in a bank.

The bank is offering an annual simple

interest rate of 5%. After 10 years Mr.

Raman will receive an amount of

(1) Rs.7.50 lakh

(2) Rs.5.50 lakh

(3) Rs.2.50 lakh

(4) Rs.2.25 lakh

21. A variable that has either a finite or a

countable number of possible values is

termed as

(1) Random variable

(2) Discrete variable

(3) Continuous variable

(4) Extraneous variable

234 (12 – A )

22. ªÀiÁqÀ£ïð ¸Áå¤lj ¦ünÖAUïì °. ¸ÀÄªÀiÁgÀÄ 75,000 ªÁ¯ïéUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÁ¶ðPÀªÁV §¼À¹PÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÀÛzÉ. §¼ÀPÉAiÀÄÄ ¹ÜgÀªÁV wAUÀ½UÉ 6250 ªÁ¯ïé DVzÉ. C¢üPÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ°è PÉÆAqÁUÀ MAzÀPÉÌ gÀÆ. 1.50 gÀ¨É¯É DUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ªÁ¶ðPÀ zÀgÀzÀ DzsÁgÀzÀ°è ºÀÆrPÉ zÀgÀzÀ 20% £ÀAvÉ ¸ÀAUÀæºÀ zÀgÀªÉAzÀÄ CAzÁf¸À¯ÁVzÉ. PÉÆÃjPÉ ¸À°è¸À®Ä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «¯ÉÃªÁj ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄ®Ä vÀUÀ®ÄªÀ ªÉZÀÑªÀÅ gÀÆ.18 DUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. PÉÆÃjPÉ ¸À°è¹zÀ ¢£À¢AzÀ «¯ÉÃªÁj ¢£ÀzÀªÀgÉUÉ 45 ¢£ÀUÀ¼ÁUÀÄvÀÛªÉ. ¸ÀÄgÀPÁë ¸ÀAUÀæºÀªÁV 3250 ªÁ¯ïéUÀ½gÀ¨ÉÃPÉA§ §AiÀÄPÉ EzÉ. ªÀiÁqÀ£ïð ¸Áå¤lj ¦ünÖAUïì °. UÉ CvÀåAvÀ, «ÄvÀªÀåAiÀÄPÀgÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁtªÀÅ

(1) 2000 AiÀÄÆ¤mïUÀ¼ÀÄ (2) 3000 AiÀÄÆ¤mïUÀ¼ÀÄ (3) 4000 AiÀÄÆ¤mïUÀ¼ÀÄ (4) 5000 AiÀÄÆ¤mïUÀ¼ÀÄ

23. PÁSÁð£ÉAiÉÆAzÀgÀ°è ªÁgÀzÀ°è 48 WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀAvÉ ¥Àæw WÀAmÉUÉ gÀÆ. 18/- gÀ zÀgÀzÀAvÉ SÁwæAiÀiÁzÀ ªÉÃvÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÁªÀw¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ZÀ®£ÉAiÀÄ CzsÀåAiÀÄ£ÀzÀAvÉ ¤¢ðµÀÖ GvÀà£ÀßzÀ MAzÀÄ AiÀÄÆ¤mï£ÀÄß vÀAiÀiÁj¸À®Ä 20 ¤«ÄµÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¨ÉÃPÉAzÀÄ CAzÁf¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄªÀ£ÀÄß 25% PÉÌ ºÉaÑ¸À¯ÁVzÉ. MAzÀÄ ªÁgÀzÀ°è DPÁ±ïgÀÄ GvÀà£ÀßzÀ 180 AiÀÄÆ¤mïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÀAiÀiÁj¹zÀgÀÄ. SÁwæAiÀiÁzÀ ªÁgÀzÀ ªÉÃvÀ£À ¥ÀæPÁgÀ AiÀÄÆ¤mï zÀgÀzÀ C£ÀÄ¸ÁgÀªÁV AiÀÄÆ¤mï MAzÀPÉÌ DPÁ±ïgÀ ªÉÃvÀ£À zÀgÀªÀÅ EzÁVzÉ.

(1) gÀÆ. 1,350/- (2) gÀÆ. 1,421/- (3) gÀÆ. 1510/- (4) gÀÆ. 1,600/-

24. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ £ÉÃgÀ RZÀÄð DVzÉ/ªÉ?

I. gÁdzsÀ£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ, AiÀÄÆ¤mï£À zÀgÀzÀ°è ¯ÉPÀÌ ºÁQzÀgÉ

II. ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÉ®¸ÀPÁÌV §¼À¹zÀgÉ PÁSÁð£ÉAiÀÄ ¨ÁrUÉ ªÉZÀÑ

III. PÁSÁð£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀZÉÃjAiÀÄ ¨ÁrUÉ, zÀgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «ªÉÄ ºÀt

IV. D¹Û ªÀiË®åzÀ E½PÉ, j¥ÉÃj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ G¥ÀPÀgÀtUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀÄAvÀæUÀ¼À ¦ÃoÉÆÃ¥ÀPÀgÀtUÀ¼À PÀlÖqÀUÀ¼À ¤ªÀðºÀuÉ EvÁå¢UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉ¼ÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ (3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ (4) ªÉÄÃ°£À J®èªÀÇ ¸Àj

25. ªÀiÁfð£À¯ï PÁ¹ÖAUïUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ/ªÀÅ?

I. ªÉZÀÑUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤UÀ¢vÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Kj½PÉAiÀÄ CA±ÀUÀ½UÁV ¨ÉÃ¥Àðr¹ CgÉ Kj½vÀzÀ ªÉZÀÑUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀºÀ CzÉÃ jÃwAiÀiÁV ªÀVÃðPÀj¸À¯ÁVzÉ.

II. ¥ÀæUÀwAiÀÄ°ègÀÄªÀ PÉ®¸ÀzÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀAiÀiÁgÁzÀ GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼À ¸ÀAUÀæºÀzÀ ªÀiË®åªÀ£ÀÄß ¯ÉPÀÌºÁPÀ®Ä Kj½vÀzÀ ªÉZÀÑªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ UÀt£ÉUÉ vÉUÉzÀÄPÉÆ¼Àî¯ÁVzÉ.

III. ªÉZÀÑªÀiÁrzÀ CªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è£À DzÁAiÀÄPÉÌ ¤UÀ¢vÀ ªÉZÀÑªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ ºÁPÀ¯ÁVzÉ. GvÀà£ÀßzÀ ªÉZÀÑ/¸ÀAUÀæºÀzÀ ªÀiË®å ¤tðAiÀÄPÁÌV CzÀ£ÀÄß UÀtÂ¸À¯ÁVzÉ.

IV. ªÀiÁfð£À¯ï ªÉZÀÑUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¨É¯ÉUÀ¼À ¤UÀ¢AiÀiÁVzÉ. DzÀgÉ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è ¨É¯ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ MmÁÖgÉ Rað£À DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¤zsÀðjvÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛªÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉ¼ÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ (3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ (4) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV

234 (13 – A )

22. Modem Sanitary Fittings Ltd. utilizes about

75,000 valves per year and the usage is

fairly constant at 6,250 valves per month.

The valve costs Rs. 1.50 per unit when

bought in large quantities; and the carrying

cost is estimated to be 20% of average

inventory investment on an annual basis.

The cost to place an order and process the

delivery is Rs. 18. It takes 45 days to

receive delivery from the date of an order

and a safety stock of 3,250 valves is desired.

The most economical quantity for Modem

Sanitary Fittings Ltd. is

(1) 2000 units

(2) 3000 units

(3) 4000 units

(4) 5000 units

23. In a factory guaranteed wages at the rate of

Rs. 18 per hour are paid in a 48-hour week.

By time and motion study it is estimated

that to manufacture one unit of a particular

product 20 minutes are taken. The time

allowed is increased by 25%. During one

week Akash produced 180 units of the

product. Akash’s wage rate per unit

according to Piece-rate with a guaranteed

weekly wage is

(1) Rs.1350

(2) Rs.1421

(3) Rs.1510

(4) Rs.1600

24. Which of the following is/are direct

expenses? I. Royalties if it is charged as a rate per

unit II. Hire charges of plant if used for a

specific job. III. Rent, rates and insurance of factory

and office IV. Depreciation, repairs and maintenance

of plant, machinery, furniture, building etc Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(1) (I) Only



(4) All of the above


true with respect to marginal costing?

I. Costs are separated into the fixed and variable elements and semi-variable

costs are also differentiated likewise.

II. Only the variable costs are taken into account for computing the value of

stocks of work-in-progress and

finished products.

III. Fixed costs are charged off to revenue wholly during the period in which they

are incurred and are taken into account

for valuing product cost/inventories.

IV. Prices may be based on marginal costs and contribution but in normal

circumstances prices would cover

costs in total.


codes given below

(1) (I) Only



(4) (I), (II) and (IV)

234 (14 – A )

26. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄÄ §eÉmï£À «µÀAiÀÄzÀ°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ.

I. §eÉmï ªÀÄÄAzÉ K£ÁUÀ§ºÀÄzÉÆÃ CzÀgÀ

CAzÁdÄ ªÀiÁvÀæªÁVzÉ. ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÁ®

CªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è ¤jÃQëvÀ ¥Àj¹ÜwUÀ¼À°è

¸ÀA¨sÀ«¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ ¸ÀA¨sÀªÀ¤ÃAiÀÄ WÀl£ÉUÀ¼À

ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.

II. AiÉÆÃfvÀ ¹ÜwUÀwUÀ¼À°è ¨sÀ«µÀåzÀ CªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è

C£ÀÄ¸Àj¸À¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ¤Ãw ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

PÁAiÀÄðPÀæªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß §eÉmï vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

III. §eÉmï ¤AiÀÄAvÀætzÀ MAzÀÄ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀªÁVzÉ.

KPÉAzÀgÉ EzÀÄ EZÉÒUÀ£ÀÄ¸ÁgÀªÁV

gÀÆ¦¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ QæAiÉÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥Àæw¤¢ü¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

CzÀjAzÁV WÀn¸ÀÄªÀ CxÀªÁ WÀn¸À¢gÀÄªÀ

¹ÜwUÀ½UÉ ºÉÆA¢¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ

¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉ¼ÀV£À

DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ



27. fÃªÀ «ªÉÄAiÀÄ £ÁªÀiÁAPÀ£ÀzÀ «µÀAiÀÄzÀ°è PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄÄ ‘vÀ¥ÀÄà’ DVzÉ?

I. £ÁªÀiÁAPÀ£À JAzÀgÉ ¥Á°¹AiÀÄ ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è

ªÀÄgÀtzÀ PÉèöÊªÀiï EzÀÝgÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ ¥Á°¹AiÀÄ

¥ÀæAiÉÆÃd£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄ®Ä AiÀiÁgÁzÀgÉÆ§â

ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÉÆvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

II. £ÁªÀiÁAPÀ£À JAzÀgÉ ¥Á°¹AiÀÄ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ,

²Ã¶ðPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D¸ÀQÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¨ÉÃgÉ ªÀåQÛUÀ½UÉ

ªÀUÁð¬Ä¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

III. £ÁªÀiÁAPÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß «ªÉÄUÉÆ¼ÀUÁzÀ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ

PÉÆÃjPÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃgÉUÉ ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ



(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ



234 (15 – A )


true with respect to budget?

I. Budget is a mere estimate of what is

likely to happen. It is a statement of

probable events which are likely to

happen under anticipated conditions

during a specified period of time

II. Budget shows that policy and

programme to be followed in a future

period under planned conditions

III. A budget is a tool of control since it

represents actions which can be

shaped according to will so that it can

be suited to the conditions which may

or may not happen.


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only




false with respect to Nomination in life

insurance?

I. Nomination is appointing some

person(s) to receive policy benefits

only when the policy has a death claim

II. Nomination is transfer of rights, title

and interest of the policy to some

person(s)

III. Nomination is done at the instance of

the insured.


codes given below :

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only



234 (16 – A )

28. PÉ¼ÀV£À ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ vÀ¥ÀÄà?

I. «ªÉÄzÁgÀ£ÀÄ ¨sÀj¸À¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ªÉÆvÀÛªÀÅ PÉèöÊªÀiï£À

C¢üPÀ/»rAiÀÄ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ¨sÁUÀªÁVzÉ.

II. ¸À¨ïgÉÆUÉÃµÀ£ï JAzÀgÉ ªÀÄÆgÀ£ÉÃ ¥ÀPÀëzÀ

«gÀÄzÀÞªÁV §AiÀÄ¹zÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

¥ÀjºÁgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

III. «ªÉÄ ªÀiÁqÀ®àlÖ D¹ÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß M§âjVAvÀ ºÉZÀÄÑ

ªÀåQÛUÀ¼ÀÄ «ªÉÄ ªÀiÁrzÁUÀ ¸À¨ïgÉÆUÉÃµÀ£ï

¸ÀA¨sÀ«¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. CAvÀºÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀºÀ

«ªÉÄzÁgÀ¤AzÀ ªÀÄÄRå «ªÉÄzÁgÀ£ÀÄ

ªÀ¸ÀÆ¯Áw ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ£ÀÄ.

IV. C¥ÁAiÀÄ ªÀUÁðªÀuÉAiÀÄ Cw ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå

«zsÁ£ÀªÉAzÀgÉ ªÀÄgÀÄ«ªÉÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.

CzÀgÀ°è C¥ÁAiÀÄªÀ£ÀÄß

(ªÀÄgÀÄ«ªÉÄzÁgÀgÉÆA¢UÉ)

ªÀÄgÀÄ«ªÉÄªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ. PÉèöÊªÀiï£À

£ÀAvÀgÀzÀ°è «ªÉÄzÁgÀjUÉ ¥ÁªÀwAiÀiÁzÀ

£ÀAvÀgÀzÀ°è CzÀ£ÀÄß ªÀ¸ÀÆ®Ä

ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.



(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ



(4) III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV JgÀqÀÆ

29. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¨ÁåAPï¤AzÀ ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀªÁV ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀÄªÀ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ?

I. oÉÃªÀtÂUÀ¼À£ÀÄß M¦àPÉÆ¼ÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ

II. ¸Á®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

III. KeÉ¤ì PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼ÀÄ

IV. G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛvÉ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼ÀÄ/DyðPÀ ¸ÉÃªÉUÀ¼ÀÄ


(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ



30. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/AiÀiÁªÀÅªÀÅ ºÀtPÁ¹£À ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀUÀ¼À®è?

I. mÉæµÀj ©®ÄèUÀ¼ÀÄ

II. ªÀÄÄ¤¹¥À¯ï ¨ÁAqïUÀ¼ÀÄ

III. FQén µÉÃgïUÀ¼ÀÄ

IV. DzÀåvÁ µÉÃgïUÀ¼ÀÄ


(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ



234 (17 – A )


false?

I. Excess/deductible is that portion of the

claim which is to be borne by the

insured

II. Subrogation is the rights and remedies

preferred against the third party.

III. Subrogation occurs when the insured

property is insured by more than 1

insurer in such cases recovery would

be made by the lead insurer from the

co-insurer.

IV. Reinsurance is the most common

method of risk transfer where the risk

is reinsured with reinsurers and after

the claim the same is recovered from

them after payment to insured.


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (III) Only



29. Which of the following is/are the primary

functions rendered by a bank?

I. Accepting Deposits

II. Lending Loans

III. Agency Functions

IV. Utility Function/ Financial Services


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only



30. Which of the following is/are not money

market instruments?

I. Treasury Bills

II. Municipal Bonds

III. Equity shares

IV. Preference shares


codes given below

(1)(I) Only

(2)(II) Only

(3)Both (I) and (II)

(4)Both (III) and (IV)

234 (18 – A )

31. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ RBI£À ¥ÀÆgÀPÀªÀ®è?

(1) ¸ÉÖÃmï ¨ÁåAPï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ

(2) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï ºË¹AUï ¨ÁåAPï

(3) r¥Á¹mï E£ÀÆëgÉ£ïì CAqï PÉærmï UÁågÀAn PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉÃµÀ£ï

(4) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï ¨ÁåAPï ¥sÁgï CVæPÀ®Ñgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÀÆgÀ¯ï qÉªÀ®¥ïªÉÄAmï

32. Drmï ¥ÀÄgÁªÉ¬Ä®èzÉ, Drlgï EzÀ£ÀÄß eÁjUÉÆ½¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ

(1) PÁé°¥sÉÊqï C©ü¥ÁæAiÀÄ

(2) C£ï PÁé°¥sÉÊqï C©ü¥ÁæAiÀÄ

(3) CqïªÀ¸ïð C©ü¥ÁæAiÀÄ

(4) r¸ïPÉèöÊÊÜáÃ… D¥sï M¦¤AiÀÄ£ï

33. ̧ ÀPÁðj PÀA¥É¤AiÉÆAzÀgÀ Drlgï£ÀÄß EªÀgÀÄ £ÉÃ«Ä¸ÀÄªÀgÀÄ

(1) PÀA¥ÉÆÖçÃ®gï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Drlgï d£ÀgÀ¯ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ

(2) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ°è ±ÉÃgï ºÉÆÃ®ØgïUÀ¼ÀÄ

(3) ªÁ¶ðPÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ°è µÉÃgï ºÉÆÃ®ØgïUÀ¼ÀÄ

(4) ¨ÉÆÃqïð D¥sï qÉÊgÉPÀÖgïì

34. PÁ¸ïÖ Drmï EzÀPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÉ

(1) PÁ¸ïÖ CPËAnAUï zÁR¯ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ

(2) PÁA¦èAiÀÄ£ïì

(3) ºÀtPÁ¹£À ¥ÀnÖUÀ¼ÀÄ

(4) ²®ÄÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¯Á¨sÀ £ÀµÀÖUÀ¼À SÁvÉ

35. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ qÉÃmÁ¨ÉÃ¸ï C®è?

(1) NgÉPÀ¯ï

(2) ¸ÉÊ¨ÉÃ¸ï

(3) Dgïr©JªÀiïJ¸ï

(4) JªÀiïJ¸ï ªÀqïð

36. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¢éwÃAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀªÀ®è?

(1) ªÀÄzÀgï¨ÉÆÃqïð

(2) ºÁqïð r¸ïÌ

(3) ¹r

(4) AiÀÄÄJ¸ï©

37. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è WTO UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ ¸Àj?

I. WTO vÀ£ÀßzÉÃ DzÀ ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ±Á±ÀévÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀiÁVzÉ

II. WTO §zÀÝvÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¥ÀÆtð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ±Á±ÀévÀ

III. WTO PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀÄVæUÀ½UÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ ªÁtÂdåzÀ°è C£ÀéAiÀÄªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.


(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ



234 (19 – A )

31. Which of the following is not the subsidiary

of RBI?

(1)State Bank of India

(2)National Housing Bank

(3)Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee

Corporation

(4)National Bank for Agriculture and Rural

Development

32. Due to lack of audit evidence, auditor issues

a

(1)Qualified opinion

(2)Unqualified opinion

(3)Adverse opinion

(4)Disclaimer of opinion

33. The auditor of a Government Company is

appointed by the

(1)Comptroller and Auditor General of

India

(2)The shareholder in a general meeting

(3)The shareholder at an annual general

meeting

(4)The board of directors.

34. Cost Audit is related to

(1)Cost accounting records

(2)Compliance

(3)Financial statements

(4)Balance and Profit & Loss Account

35. Which of the following is not a database?

(1)Oracle

(2)Sybase

(3)RDBMS

(4)MS Word

36. Which of the following is not a secondary

storage device?

(1) Motherboard

(2) Hard disk

(3) CD

(4) USB


true with respect to WTO?

I. The WTO is a permanent institution

with its own secretariat

II. The WTO commitments are full and

permanent

III. The WTO rules apply to trade in

merchandise only


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only

(3) (III) Only


234 (20 – A )

38. PÉ¼ÀV£À ¸ÉÃªÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀÄªÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ IMF vÀ£Àß ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀåjUÉ ¨ÉA§® ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

I. DyðPÀ ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉUÀ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

CAvÀzÉÃð²ÃAiÀÄ C£ÀÄ¨sÀªÀUÀ¼À

«±ÉèÃµÀuÉUÀ¼À DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É

¸ÀgÀPÁgÀUÀ½UÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÉÃAzÀæ ¨ÁåAPïUÀ½UÉ

¤Ãw ¸À®ºÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀÄªÀÅzÀgÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ

II. DyðPÀvÉUÀ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖUÀ¼À

eÁUÀwPÀ, ¥ÁæAwÃAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÊAiÀÄQÛPÀ

£É¯ÉUÀ¼À DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ°£À ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£É,

CAQ CA±À, ªÀÄÄ£ÀÆìZÀ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

«±ÉèÃµÀuÉ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ

III. DyðPÀ ¸ÀAPÀµÀÖUÀ¼À£ÉßzÀÄj¸À®Ä zÉÃ±ÀUÀ½UÉ

¸Á®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

IV. C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ºÉÆAzÀÄwÛgÀÄªÀ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼À°è

§qÀvÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß JzÀÄj¸À®Ä jAiÀiÁ¬Äw

zÀgÀzÀ°è ¸Á®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀÄªÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ



(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ


(4) ªÉÄÃ°£À J®èªÀÇ

39. JrDgï ¯ÉªÉ¯ï-1 gÀ ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è PÉ¼ÀV£À ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸Àj?

I. JrDgï ¯ÉªÉ¯ï -1gÀ°è EgÀÄªÀ

±ÉÃgïUÀ½UÁV ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ©qÀÄUÀqÉ

ªÀiÁqÀÄwÛgÀÄªÀªÀgÀÄ «¸ÀÛj¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

CzÀjAzÁV §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÁgÀgÀ UÀÄA¥À£ÀÄß

¨É¼É¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ

II. F ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀzÀ°è J¸ïE¹ UÉ PÀ¤µÀÖ

ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀ¨ÉÃPÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.

§AqÀªÁ¼ÀUÁgÀ£ÀÄ US GAAP AiÉÆA¢UÉ

¸ÀºÀªÀÄw vÉÆÃgÀ¨ÉÃPÁV®è.

III. F jÃwAiÀÄ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀzÀ°è ºÀÆrPÉzÁgÀ£ÀÄ

(issuer) ºÉÆ¸À §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀ£ÀÄß JvÀÛ®Ä

CxÀªÁ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï ¸ÁÖPï

JPïìZÉÃAeï£ÉÆA¢V£À ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è

¸ÉÃjPÉÆ¼Àî§ºÀÄzÁVzÉ.



(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ




234 (21 – A )

38. The IMF supports its membership by

providing

I. Policy advice to governments and

central banks based on analysis of

economic trends and cross-country

experiences

II. Research, statistics, forecasts, and

analysis based on tracking of global,

regional and individual economies and

markets

III. Loans to help countries overcome

economic difficulties

IV. Concessional loans to help fight

poverty in developing countries.


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only




true with respect to ADR Level-I?

I. In ADR Level-I issuer can enlarge the

market for existing shares and thus

diversify the investor base.

II. In this instrument only minimum

disclosure is required to the SEC and

the issuer need not comply with the

US GAAP

III. In this type of instrument the issuer is

allowed to raise fresh capital or list on

any one of the national stock

exchanges.


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) Only (III)



234 (22 – A )

40. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV eÉÆÃr¹ I ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ MAzÉÃ

PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è£À JgÀqÀÄ CxÀªÁ ºÉaÑ£À PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃUÀ. GzÁ: ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖAiÀÄ §ºÀÄ¥Á®£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄ®Ä JgÀqÀÄ ¥ÀÄ¸ÀÛPÀ ¥ÀæPÁ±ÀPÀgÀÄ CxÀªÁ JgÀqÀÄ ®UÉÃdÄ vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ PÀA¥É¤UÀ¼À ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃUÀ

a. ®A¨ÁAvÀgÀ «°Ã£À

II MAzÉÃ GvÀà£ÀßzÀ vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ°è£À ««zsÀ ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À CxÀªÁ «vÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ JgÀqÀÄ CxÀªÁ ºÉaÑ£À PÀA¥É¤UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÉÃ¥ÀðqÉAiÀiÁUÀÄ«PÉ

b. ºÁjd «°Ã£À

III ¸ÀA§AzsÀgÀ»vÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ZÀlÄªÀnPÉUÀ¼À°è vÉÆqÀVgÀÄªÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À ¸ÉÃ¥Àðr¸ÀÄ«PÉ GzÁ: ¹ªÉÄAmï GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼À vÀAiÀiÁjPÉ, UÉÆ§âgÀ GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼ÀÄ, «zÀÄå£Áä£À GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼ÀÄ, «ªÀiÁ ºÀÆrPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ eÁ»ÃgÁvÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À

c. Cfð¸ÀÄ«PÉ

ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À «°Ã£À GzÁ: TV vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ (eÉÆÃqÀuÉAiÀÄ) PÀA¥À¤ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ MAzÀÄ n« ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï PÀA¥À¤ CxÀªÁ £ÀÆ®ÄªÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ¸ÉÃjPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÉÃAiÀÄÄªÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ¸ÉÃjPÉ.

IV PÀA¥É¤UÀ¼À ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃUÀ«®èzÉ PÀA¥É¤AiÉÆAzÀÄ E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄ D¹ÛUÀ¼À CxÀªÁ ¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj ¤AiÀÄAvÀætªÀ£ÀÄß ¸Á¢ü¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

d. MPÀÆÌl «°Ã£À


I II III IV

(1) a d c b

(2) b a d c

(3) c b a d

(4) a b c d

234 (23 – A )


1. A combination of

two or more firms in

the same area of

business. For example,

combining of two

book publishers or two

luggage

manufacturing

companies to gain

dominant market share

a. Vertical merger

2. A combination of

two or more firms

involved in different

stages of production or

distribution of the

same product.

3.

b. Horizontal merger

4. A combination of

firms engaged in

unrelated lines of

business activity. For

example, merging of

different businesses

like manufacturing of

cement products,

fertilizer products,

electronic products,

insurance investment

and advertising

agencies. For example,

joining of a TV

manufacturing

c. Acquisition

(assembling) company

and a TV marketing

company or joining of

a spinning company

and a weaving

company

5. An act of acquiring

effective control by

one company over

assets or management

of another company

without any

combination of

companies

d. Conglomerate

merger


codes given below

1 2 3 4

(1) a d c b

(2) b a d c

(3) c b a d

(4) a b c d

234 (24 – A )

41. F PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢¹j I DyðPÀ

¥ÀjuÁªÀÄUÀ½AzÁV ºÀtPÁ¹£À C£ÁªÀgÀt

a. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ C£ÁªÀgÀt

II MAzÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¸À£ÀÄß E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¹£ÉÆA¢UÉ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀiÁrPÉÆAqÁUÀ GAmÁzÀ C£ÁªÀgÀt

b. mÁæ®…ÕÇæàÐÜ®… (¨sÁµÁAvÀgÀ) C£ÁªÀgÀt

III PÉÆæÃrüÃPÀÈvÀ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¹zÀÞUÉÆ½¸ÀÄªÀ CUÀvÀå¢AzÁV §ºÀÄgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À°è C£ÁªÀgÀtzÀ CªÀ±ÀåPÀvÉ ªÉÄÃ¯ÉÃ¼ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

c. PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ C£ÁªÀgÀt


I II III

(1) c a b

(2) c b a

(3) a b c

(4) a c b

42. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢¹j I F ¹zÁÞAvÀªÀÅ ¸ÁzÀgÀ

¥Àr¸ÀÄªÀÅzÉÃ£ÉAzÀgÉ

AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ zÉÃ±ÀªÀÅ vÀ£Àß°è

AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀªÀÅ

«¥sÀÄ®ªÁVzÉAiÉÆÃ ºÁUÀÆ

ºÉZÀÄÑ wÃªÀævÉAiÀÄÄ¼ÀîzÉÆÝÃ

CzÀgÀ°è «±ÉÃµÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß

ºÉÆA¢ D GvÀà£ÀßªÀ£ÀÄß

gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

a. vÀÄ®£ÁvÀäPÀ ªÉZÀÑ ¥ÀæAiÉÆÃd£ÀzÀ ¹zÁÞAvÀ

II F ¹zÁÞAvÀzÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV,

PÁ«ÄðPÀgÀ£ÀÄß PË±À®åAiÀÄÄPÀÛ

ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PË±À®ågÀ»vÀªÉAzÀÄ

ªÀVÃðPÀj¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ

b. ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀiÁUÀð

III GvÀà£ÀßzÀ DgÀA s̈ÀzÀ

ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À°è KPÀ¸ÁéªÀÄåzÀ

¥ÀæAiÉÆÃd£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

¥ÀqÉAiÀÄÄªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

«zÉÃ²Ã ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖUÀ¼À

¥ÀæªÉÃ±Àå ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅªÀÅ. CzÀÄ

C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ºÉÆA¢zÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ºÉÆAzÀÄwÛgÀÄªÀ

zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄzsÉå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

OzÉÆåÃVPÀ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

vÀªÀÄävÀªÀÄä°èAiÉÄÃ ªÀ»ªÁnUÉ

ºÁ¢ ªÀiÁrPÉÆqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

c. GvÀà£ÀßzÀ fÃ«vÀ ZÀPÀæ


I II III

(1) c a b

(2) c b a

(3) a b c

(4) a c b

234 (25 – A )


1. The exposure of the

currency due to economic

effects

a. Transaction exposure

2. Exposure occurs when

one currency must be

exchanged for another

b. Translation exposure

3. Exposure arises in

multinational firms from

the requirement that

produce consolidated

financial statements

c. Operating Exposure


given below

1 2 3

(1) c a b

(2) c b a

(3) a b c

(4) a c b

42. Match the following correctly 1. This theory suggests that a country will specialize and

export that product which is

more intensive in that factor

which is more abundant

a. Theory of Comparative

Cost

Advantage

2. According to this theory, labour can be classified into

skilled and unskilled labour

b. Human Capital

Approach

3. Countries will enjoy monopoly benefits in the

initial stages of production,

and will access to foreign

markets, leading to trade

between the developed and

developing countries as well

as trade among the

industrialized countries

themselves

c. Product Life-Cycle

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below

1 2 3

(1) c a b

(2) c b a

(3) a b c

(4) a c b

234 (26 – A )

43. vÀªÀÄä DyðPÀ C©üªÀÈ¢ÞUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ C©üªÀÈ¢Þ²Ã® zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀªÀÄ¸ÉåUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ZÀað¸À®Ä ªÉÃ¢PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÀ°à¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀPÁÌV 1964gÀ°è UN ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄÄ PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÁÜ¦¹vÀÄ.

(1) UNCTAD (2) IMF (3) GATT (4) ËÍÜÌ ¸ÝÂíPÜá

44. PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀªÀÅ DyðPÀ ¸ÉÃªÉUÀ¼À ®PÀëtªÀ®è?

(1) ¸ÀàµÀÖvÉ (2) ¸ÀºÀªÀwðvÀé (3) ºÁ¼ÁUÀÄ«PÉ (4) ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ZÀ®£À²Ã®vÉ

45. PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉÃµÀ£ï ««zsÀ §UÉUÀ¼À ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ

I. MAzÀÄ §ºÀÄgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¤UÀªÀÄªÀÅ ºÀ®ªÁgÀÄ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼À°è PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CzÀgÀ ªÀ»ªÁn£À §ºÀÄ¥Á®Ä vÀ£ÀßzÉÃ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼ÀzÁÝVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

II. MAzÀÄ CAvÀgïgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¤UÀªÀÄªÀ£ÀÄß ªÁåSÁå¤¸ÀÄªÀÅzÉAzÀgÉ PÀ¤µÀÖ MAzÀÄ «zÉÃ²Ã gÁµÀÖçzÀ°è vÀ£Àß ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CzÀÄ ºÉÆA¢gÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ

III. mÁæ£ïì£ÉÃµÀ£À¯ï PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉÃµÀ£ï MAzÀÄ §ºÀÄgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉÃµÀ£ï DVzÀÄÝ, CzÀgÀ ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀvÀé ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤AiÀÄAvÀætªÀÅ CAvÀgïgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄªÁV ºÀgÀrzÉ. CzÀgÀ°è zÉÃ¹ÃAiÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ MAzÀÄ PÉÃA¢æÃAiÀÄ C¢üPÁgÀ ªÀÄÆ®«gÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉ¼ÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ (4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ

46. CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ CPËAnAUï ¸ÁÖöåAqÀqïð ¥ÀæPÁgÀ (IAS) CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ªÀgÀ¢ ¸ÁÖöåAqÀqïð (IFRS) (IASB ¬ÄAzÀ eÁjAiÀiÁzÀ) «wÛÃAiÀÄ ªÀgÀ¢UÀ¼À ¤gÀÆ¥ÀuÉ EzÀgÀr §gÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.

(1) IAS-1

(2) IAS-2

(3) IAS-7

(4) IAS-8

47. XYZ Ltd. (È) 1,00,000 µÉÃgïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢zÉ ¥Àæw µÉÃgï£À ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¨É¯É gÀÆ. 15 DVzÉ. D ªÀµÀðzÀ°è PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄÄ ¤ªÀé¼À¯Á¨sÀªÁV gÀÆ. 2,00,000 UÀ¼À ¤jÃPÀëuÉ ºÉÆA¢zÉ. CzÀÄ ²æÃªÀÄAvÀ ªÀUÀðPÉÌ ¸ÉÃjzÁÝVzÉ. CzÀgÀ §AqÀªÁ½ÃPÀgÀt zÀgÀªÀ£ÀÄß 20% ªÉAzÀÄ CAzÁf¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ ªÀµÀðzÀ°è gÀÆ. 2.50 gÀAvÉ ¥Àæw µÉÃjUÉ r«qÉAqï JAzÀÄ PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄÄ ¥ÀjUÀtÂ¸ÀÄwÛzÉ. r«qÉAqï£ÀÄß ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁrzÀgÉ µÉÃgï£À ¨É¯ÉAiÀÄÄ ªÀµÀðzÀ PÉÆ£ÉAiÀÄ°è F ªÉÆvÀÛªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) gÀÆ. 10.25

(2) gÀÆ. 15.50

(3) gÀÆ. 20.36

(4) gÀÆ. 23.60

234 (27 – A )

43. Which of the following institutions was established by U.N. General Assembly in

1964 in order to provide a forum where the

developing countries could discuss the

problems relating to their economic

development?

(1)UNCTAD

(2)IMF

(3)GATT

(4)World Bank

44. Which of the following is not the feature of Financial Services?

(1) Tangibility

(2) Concomitant

(3) Perishability

(4) Market Dynamics

45. Which of the following statements is/are true in context of various types of

corporations?

I. A ‘Multinational Corporation’ is a

company which operates in several

countries and a considerable share of

its business is from domestic countries

II. An ‘International Corporation’ may be

defined as a company which has

business operations in at least one

foreign country

III. A ‘Transnational Corporation’ is a

multinational, the ownership and

control of which are dispersed

internationally. It has a principal

domicile and a single central source of

power


codes given below

(1)(I) Only

(2)(II) Only

(3)Both (I) and (II)

(4)Both (II) and (III)

46. According to International Accounting

Standards (IAS)/ International Financial

Reporting Standards (IFRS) issued by the

IASB, Presentation of Financial Statements

comes under

(1)IAS-1

(2)IAS-2

(3)IAS-7

(4)IAS-8

47. XYZ Ltd., has 1,00,000 shares outstanding

the current market price of the shares Rs. 15

each. The company expects the net profit of

Rs. 2,00,000 during the year and it belongs

to a rich class for which the appropriate

capitalisation rate has been estimated to be

20%. The company is considering dividend

of Rs. 2.50 per share for the current year.

The price of the share at the end of the year,

if the dividend is paid is

(1)Rs.10.25

(2)Rs.15.50

(3)Rs.20.36

(4)Rs.23.60

234 (28 – A )

48. CPËAnAUï ¸ÁÖöåAqÀqïð£À GzÉÝÃ±ÀªÀÅ

I. zÉÃ±ÀzÀ°è£À ««zsÀ ¯ÉPÀÌ ¥ÀvÀæ ¤ÃwUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀªÀÄgÀ¸ÀªÀ£ÀÄßAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ MAzÀÄ zÉÃ±ÀzÀ°è §¼À¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.

II. «wÛÃAiÀÄ ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À ¹zÀÞvÉAiÀÄ°è ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ¥ÀAiÀiÁðAiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÀrªÉÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

III. ¨ÉÃgÉ ¨ÉÃgÉ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À «wÛÃAiÀÄ ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À vÀÄ£À¯ÁvÀäPÀvÉAiÀÄ SÁwæ

IV. PÁ£ÀÆ¤£À CªÀ±ÀåPÀvÉAiÀiÁZÉ §»gÀAUÀUÉÆ½¸À®Ä PÀgÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉ¼ÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹

(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ


(4) ªÉÄÃ°£À J®èªÀÇ ¸Àj

49. ̈ sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è DzÁAiÀÄ vÉjUÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß EzÀgÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV ¤UÀ¢¸À¯ÁVzÉ.

(1) ¢ ¥sÉÊ£Á£ïì DPïÖ

(2) ¢ E£ïPÀA mÁåPïì DPïÖ

(3) ¢ ¸ÉAlæ¯ï ¨ÉÆÃqïð D¥sï qÉÊgÉPïÖ mÁåPÀì¸ï

(4) ¢ «Ä¤¹Öç D¥sï ¥sÉÊ£Á£ïì

50. PÉ¼ÀV£À ªÀåQÛUÀ¼À ¥ÉÊQ, ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ºÉÆgÀUÀqÉ »A¢£À ªÀµÀðzÀ°è ¥ÀqÉzÀ «zÉÃ²Ã DzÁAiÀÄzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É vÉjUÉ ºÁPÀÄªÀÅ¢®è.

I. gÉ¹qÉAmï (¤ªÁ¹)

II. £Ámï Drð£Àj° gÉ¹qÉAmï (¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV ¤ªÁ¹AiÀÄ®èzÀ)

III. £Á£ï gÉ¹qÉAmï (¤ªÁ¹AiÀÄ®èzÀ)


(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ

(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ



51. vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ PÀA¥É¤AiÉÆAzÀgÀ CAwªÀÄ ¯ÉPÀÌ¥ÀvÀæªÀÅ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV PÉ¼ÀPÀAqÀ ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄvÀÛzÉ I. ¨Áå®£ïì ²Ãmï

II. vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ ¯ÉPÀÌ

III. ¯Á¨sÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÀµÀÖzÀ ¯ÉPÀÌ

IV. ÊÝÂ±ÝÃÜ ÇæPÜR

V. ¯Á¨sÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÀµÀÖ ºÉÆAzÁtÂPÁ ¯ÉPÀÌ

ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÀAiÀiÁgÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ C£ÀÄPÀæªÀÄªÀÅ »ÃVzÉ.

(1) I, II, III, IV, V

(2) II, IV, III, V, I

(3) V, II, IV, III, I

(4) I, IV, III, II, V

234 (29 – A )

48. The Objective(s) of Accounting Standards

is/are to

I. Harmonise different accounting

policies and used in a country

II. Reduce the accounting alternatives

in the preparation of financial statements

III. Ensure comparability of financial

statements of different enterprises

IV. Call for disclosures beyond that

required by the law.


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only



49. Income tax in India is charged at the rate

prescribed by

(1) The Finance Act

(2) The Income Tax Act

(3) The Central Board of Direct Taxes

(4) The Ministry of Finance

50. In case of which of the following person(s)

foreign income received out of India during

the previous year is/are not taxable

I. Resident

II. Not-ordinarily resident

III. Non-resident


codes given below

(1) (I) Only

(2) (II) Only

(3) (III) Only


51. The final accounts of a manufacturing

company generally include the following

statements:

i. Balance sheet

ii. Manufacturing account

iii. Profit and loss account

iv. Trading account.

v. Profit and Loss Appropriation

Account

The correct sequence in which the

statements are prepared is:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(2) (ii), (iv), (iii), (v), (i)

(3) (v), (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

(4) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v)

234 (30 – A )

52. §AqÀªÁ¼À DzÁAiÀÄ ªÀVÃðPÀgÀtzÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀ vÀvÀéªÀÅ ºÉZÀÄÑ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁVzÉ.

(1) ¸ÁªÀÄVæ (¨sËwPÀvÉ)AiÀÄ vÀvÀé (2) ¸ÀAgÀPÀëuÉAiÀÄ vÀvÀé (3) ¹ÜgÀvÉAiÀÄ vÀvÀé (4) ¸ÀA¥ÀÆtð ¤ªÉÃzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ vÀvÀé

53. PÉ¼ÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß §¼À¹ ¥ÀnÖ II gÉÆA¢UÉ ¥ÀnÖ I £ÀÄß ºÉÆAzÁtÂPÉ ªÀiÁrj

¥ÀnÖ - I ¥ÀnÖ -II a AS-2 I ¤UÀ¢vÀ D¹ÛUÀ¼À ªÉÄÃ¯É

¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀ b AS-6 II DzÁAiÀÄ UÀt£ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É

¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀ c AS-9 III ªÀiË®å E½PÉ ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ

ªÉÄÃ¯É ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀ d AS-10 IV vÀ¥À²Ã®Ä ¥ÀnÖ ªÀiË°åÃPÀgÀtzÀ

ªÉÄÃ¯É ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀ F PÉ¼ÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹

a b c d 1) IV III II I 2) I II III IV 3) II I IV III 4) III II I IV

54. “UÉæÃ¥ïªÉÊ£ï” §UÉÎ PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀÄzÀÄ?

(1) O¥ÀZÁjPÀ UÀÄA¦£À ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ M§âgÀ£ÉÆß§âgÀÄ ZÉ£ÁßV §®èªÀgÁVzÀÝgÉ CzÀÄ C¹ÛvÀézÀ°ègÀ®Ä ¥ÀæAiÀÄwß¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

(2) EzÀÄ PÉ®¸À ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ eÁUÀzÀ°ègÀÄªÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ ±ÀQÛUÀ¼À ¥sÀ°vÀªÁVgÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

(3) ºÉaÑ£À ¸ÁA¹ÜPÀ §zÀÞvÉUÀ¼À ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄUÀ¼À°è EzÀÄ ºÉZÀÄÑ ¸ÀªÉÃð ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁVgÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ


55. ¤ªÀðºÀuÁ ¤ÃwUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄÆ® vÀvÀéªÀÅ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ?

(1) ¸ÁªÀÄÆ»PÀ PÁAiÀÄðzÀ°è vÉÆqÀVgÀÄªÀ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ°èAiÀÄÆ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀªÀÅ vÀAqÀPÁAiÀÄð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀÄ±À¹ìUÉ MAzÀÄ ±ÀQÛ±Á° ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀªÁVzÉ.

(2) zÉÊªÀvÉ, ªÀåQÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «±ÀézÀ°è£À KPÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀÆa¸ÀÄªÀ ¸ÀªÀÄUÀævÁ ªÀiÁUÀð

(3) CUÁzsÀªÁzÀ ¸Àé±ÀQÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ£ÁV ¥Àj¥ÀÆtðvÉUÁV£À ¥Àæw¨sÉUÀ¼ÀÄ CªÀ£À ºÀÈzÀAiÀÄzÀ°è GvÁìºÀ ¨sÀjvÀªÁVzÉ.


56. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹:

PÉÆqÀÄUÉPÁgÀgÀÄ ¸ÁA¹ÜPÀ ¹zÁÞAvÀ a ZÉ¸ÀÖgï

§£Áðqïð -1 I ¥sÀAPÀë£À¯ï ¥sÉÆÃgïªÀÄ£ï ²¥ï

b ªÀiÁåPïì ªÉ§gï II CPÉé¥ÉÖ£ïì yAiÀÄj D¥sï CxÁjn

c J¥sï.§qÀÆèöå. mÉÃ®gï

III N¥À£ï ¹¸ÀÖA yAiÀÄj

d PÀmïÓ CAqï PÀ£ï

IV §ÆågÉÆÃPÀæ¹


a b c d

(1) II IV III I

(2) III IV II I

(3) IV III I II

(4) II IV I III

234 (31 – A )

52. Which principle has important bearing on

the capital-revenue classification?

(1) Principle of materiality

(2) Principle of conservatism

(3) Principle of consistency

(4) Principle of full disclosure

53. Match List I with List II and select correct

answer using codes given below:

List I List II

a. AS-2

I. Accounting standard

on fixed assets

b. AS-6

II. Accounting standard

on revenue recognition

c. AS-9

III. Accounting

standard on

depreciation accounting

d.AS-10

IV Accounting standard

on valuation of

inventory


codes given below

a b c d

(1) IV III II I

(2) I II III IV

(3) II I IV III

(4) III II I IV

54. Which of the following is correct about

"GRAPEVINE"?

(1) It tends to exist when members of formal group know one another well

(2) It is the result of the social forces at workplace

(3) It is more common in times of high organizational commitment


55. Which is the basic principle of ethos for

management?

(1) Co-operation is powerful instrument for teamwork and success in any

enterprise involving collective work

(2) Holistic approach indicating unity between the Divine, individual self

and the Universe

(3) Immense potential energy and talents for perfection as human being has the

spirit within his heart


56. Match the following

Contributor Organization

theory

(a) Chester I

Bernard

(i)Functional

foremanship

(b) Max Weber (ii)Acceptance

theory of authority

(c)F.W. Taylor (iii)Open system

theory

(d) Katz &Kahn (iv)Bureaucracy


codes given below

a b c d (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

234 (32 – A )

57. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï ªÀiÁå£ÉÃeïªÉÄAmï£À ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ Kj½PÉ (ZÀgÀ) C®è?

(1) ¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ (2) vÁAwæPÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ (3) ªÉÊeÁÕ¤PÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ (4) DyðPÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ

58. CAvÀeÁð®zÀ ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖAiÀÄÄ EzÀgÉÆqÀ£É ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è.

(1) eÁ»ÃgÁvÀÄ (2) ¥Àæw¸ÀàAzÀ£Á ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï (3) E-ªÉÄÃ¯ï ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉ¨ï

eÁ»ÃgÁvÀÄ (4) ¥ÀæzÀ±ÀðPÀ eÁ»ÃgÁvÀÄ

59. ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ¸ÀÜgÀ ¯Á¨sÀªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉaŅ̃ ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀiÁvÀæªÀ®èzÉ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉÃªÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀªÀiÁdzÀ°ègÀÄªÀ UÁæºÀPÀjUÉ G¥À®§ÞªÁUÀÄªÀAvÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀPÁÌV ªÀiÁgÁlªÀÅ ªÀÄÄRåªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

PÁgÀt (R) : ¸ÁªÀÄVæUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉÃªÉUÀ¼ÀÄ CAwªÀÄªÁV CªÀÅUÀ¼À CªÀ±ÀåPÀvÉ¬ÄgÀÄªÀ UÁæºÀPÀgÀvÀÛ ZÀ°¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÁæºÀPÀjUÉ vÀ£Àß GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼À£ÀÄß «vÀj¸ÀÄªÀ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ ¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. (1) ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁgÀt R JgÀqÀÆ

¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀªÀÅ (2) ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A ¸Àj DzÀgÉ PÁgÀt R

¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀÄzÀ®è (3) ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A ¸Àj C®è DzÀgÉ PÁgÀt R

¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀÄzÀÄ (4) ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁgÀt R ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A UÉ PÁgÀt R DVzÉ.

60. GvÀÛªÀÄ ¸ÀAzÀ±Àð£À «zsÁ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß vÉUÉzÀÄPÉÆ¼Àî®Ä 7 CA±ÀUÀ¼À AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀjZÀ¬Ä¹zÀªÀgÀÄ AiÀiÁgÀÄ?

(1) «Ä®Ö£ï J¯ï §èªÀiï

(2) J¥sï.E.§mïð

(3) ¥ÉÆæ J. gÉÆÃd¸ïð

(4) ¦ü°¥ï

61. GvÀà£ÀßvÉ JAzÀgÉ

(1) MAzÀÄ ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÉ®¸ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä GzÉÆåÃVUÉ ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ eÁÕ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PË±À®åªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉaŅ̃ ÀÄªÀ PÀæªÀÄ

(2) ¸ÁªÀÄVæUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉÃªÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß GvÁà¢¸À®Ä PÀ¤µÀÖ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß §¼À¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

(3) ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ PÉ®¸ÀPÉÌ C£ÀÄUÀÄtªÁzÀ PË±À®åªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉ¢gÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

(4) ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ GvÀà£ÀßzÀ JzÀÄgÀÄ CzÀgÀ M¼ÀºÀjªÀÅUÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀ

62. ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®ªÀ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ

D¯ÉÆÃa¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ “¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ PÁ«ÄðPÀgÀ

eÁÕ£À PË±À®å, ¸ÀÈd£ÁvÀäPÀ PÀëªÀÄvÉUÀ¼ÀÄ,

¥Àæw¨sÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄ£ÉÆÃ ¨sÁªÀUÀ¼ÀÄ, eÉÆvÉUÉ

ªÀiË®åUÀ¼À ªÀÄ£ÉÆÃz sÀªÀÄð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÀA©PÉUÀ¼ÀÄ”. F ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÉÆlÖªÀgÀÄ AiÀiÁgÀÄ?

(1) °AiÉÆÃ£ï ¹. ªÉÄVÎ£ï¸À£ï (2) ªÉÄlð£ï (3) ¦ü°¥ï PÉÆlègï (4) r. ¦ü¯ÉÆÃ¥ÉÆ

234 (33 – A )

57. Which of the following is not controllable

variable of marketing management?

(1) Competitive Environment

(2) Technological Environment

(3) Science Environment

(4) Economic environment

58. Internet Marketing does not deal

(1) Advertising

(2) Interactive marketing

(3) E-mail Marketing and Web Advertising

(4) Display Advertising

59. Assertion (A). Selling is important not

merely for increasing the profits of

business-men, but also for making goods

and services available to the consumers in

society.

Reason(R). It is the process whereby goods

and services finally flow to the consumers

who need them and the firm performs its

functions of distributing its products among

consumers.

Codes :

(1) Assertion (A) and Reason(R) both are true

(2) Assertion (A)is true but Reason (R) is not true

(3) Assertion (A)is not true but the Reason(R) is true

(4) Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R) is the reason of

Assertion (A)

60. Who has introduced the 'seven point plan'

for taking the best interview method?

(1) Milton L. Blum

(2) F. E. Burt

(3) Prof. A. Rozars

(4) Fillip

61. Productivity means

(1) An act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a

particular job.

(2) Using the minimum amount of resources need to produce goods and

services.

(3) One's skill abilities in meeting the needs of the job which one is holding

currently.

(4) The ratio of an organization's output to its inputs.

62. Human resource can be thought of as "the

total knowledge, skill, creative abilities,

talents and attitudes of an organization's

workforce as well as the value attitudes and

beliefs of the individuals involved". who

gave this statement?

(1) Leon C. Megginson

(2) Merton

(3) Philip Kotler

(4) D. Philopho

234 (34 – A )

63. ‘zÉÃ±ÀªÀÅ gÀPÀëuÉ, ªÀÄ£ÀÄµÀågÀÄ PÉ®¸À ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ¥Àj¹Üw ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ºÉjUÉ ¥ÀjºÁgÀ’ EªÀÅUÀ¼À ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.

EzÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀrAiÀÄ°è §gÀÄvÀÛzÉ?

(1) DnðPÀ¯ï 39

(2) DnðPÀ¯ï 42

(3) DnðPÀ¯ï 45


64. “¸ÀÄ¢ÃWÀð PÁ®zÀ (DUÀvÀ) ¯Á¨sÀzÀ PÀæªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉzÀÄPÉÆ¼ÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ PÁå¦l¯ï §eÉnAUï” EzÀ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁgÀÄ ºÉÃ½zÀgÀÄ?

(1) jZÀqïð CAqï VæÃ£ï

(2) eÉ. ¨ÉnÖ

(3) ZÁ¯ïìð ÖÝ®ÜìVæÃ£ï

(4) °AZï

65. PÀA¥É¤AiÉÆAzÀÄ rªÉqÉAqï£ÀÄß ¥ÀæPÀn¹zÀgÉ CzÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÁªÀw¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ CªÀ±ÀåªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) ¤¢ðµÀÖ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÉÆ¼ÀUÉ

(2) K¼ÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀÙæãÙÜWæ

(3) DgÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀÙæãÙÜWæ

(4) LzÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀÙæãÙÜWæ

66. PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ, ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ªÀiË®åªÀÅ §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ¬ÄAzÀ ¥Àæ¨sÁ«vÀªÁUÀÄªÀÅ¢®è

(1) MM ¹zÁÞAvÀ

(2) ¤ªÀé¼À DzÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁUÀð

(3) ¸ÁA¥ÀæzÁ¬ÄPÀ zÀÈ¶ÖPÉÆÃ£À

(4) ªÉÄÃ°£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

67. PÉ¼ÀV£À ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß N¢j

I. “PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ PÉÆgÀvÉAiÀÄ eÉÆvÉUÉ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ°£À ¯Á¨sÀzÀ zÀgÀªÀÅ ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

II. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ D¹ÛUÀ¼À ºÉZÀÑ¼ÀªÀÅ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ½VAvÀ ºÉaÑ£ÀzÁVzÁÝUÀ ¤ªÀé¼À PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

III. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ UÁvÀæ ºÉZÁÑzÀµÀÄÖ PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ CUÀvÀåªÀÇ ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

IV. PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀÅ ¸ÀAZÀ°vÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÉ£Àß¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

PÉ¼ÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢zÉ.


(1) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III

(2) II, III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV

(3) III IV ªÀÄvÀÄÛ I

(4) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV

68. Kj½PÉAiÀÄ «±ÉèÃµÀuÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀjPÀ®à£É (ANOVA) AiÀÄ£ÀÄß C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ¥Àr¹zÀªÀgÀÄ ________

(1) PÁ¯ïð ¦AiÀÄ¸Àð£ï

(2) ¥ÉÆæ ¦ü±Àgï

(3) ¹àAiÀÄgïªÀÄ£ï

(4) F ªÉÄÃ°£À AiÀiÁgÀÆ C®è

234 (35 – A )

63. "State shall make provision for securing

just & humane conditions of work & for

maternity relief"comes under.

(1) Article 39

(2) Article 42

(3) Article 45

(4) All of these

64. "Capital budgeting as acquiring inputs with

long run return". Who said this ?

(1) Richard and Green

(2) J. Betty

(3) Charles Horngreen

(4) Lynch

65. If the company announces dividend then it

is necessary to pay it

(1) Within certain time

(2) Within seven years

(3) Within six years

(4) Within five years

66. According to which of the following the

firms market value is not affected by capital

market ?

(1) M. M. Hypothesis

(2) Net Income Approach

(3) The Traditional View

(4) None of the above

67. Read the following statement

I. "The rate of return on investment increases with the shortage of

working capital".

II. "Net working capital is the excess of current assets over current

liabilities".

III. "Greater the size of the business unit larger will be the requirement of

working capital".

IV. "Working capital is also known as circulating capital".

Which one of the following consists of the

correct statements ?

Codes:

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below :

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (iii), (iv) and (i)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

68. The concept of Analysis of Variance

(ANOVA) was developed by

(1) Karl Pearson

(2) Prof. Fisher

(3) Spearman

(4) None of these

234 (36 – A )

69. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀA¨sÁªÀåªÀ®èzÀ £ÀªÀÄÆ£Á «zsÁ£ÀªÁVzÉ

(1) C£ÀÄPÀÆ®PÀgÀ ªÀiÁzÀj

(2) PÉÆÃmÁ(»¸Éì) ªÀiÁzÀj

(3) ¤tðAiÀiÁvÀäPÀ ªÀiÁzÀj

(4) ªÀåªÀ¹ÜvÀªÁzÀ ªÀiÁzÀj

70. UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ zÀvÁÛA±ÀPÁÌV ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV AiÀiÁªÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀÄvÉÛÃªÉ

(1) ‘t’ ¥ÀjÃPÉë

(2) ‘T’ ¥ÀjÃPÉë

(3) 2 chi–square ¥ÀjÃPÉë

(4) ‘v’ ¥ÀjÃPÉë

71. £À¨Áqïð£ÀÄß ¸ÁÜ¦¹zÀÄÝ EzÀgÀ ²¥sÁgÀ¹ì£À ªÉÄÃ¯É

(1) vÀ®ªÁgï ¸À«Äw

(2) lAqÀ£ï ¸À«Äw

(3) £ÀgÀ¹AºÀ£ï ¸À«Äw

(4) ²ªÀgÁªÀÄ£ï ¸À«Äw

72. jÃmÉÊ¯ï ¨ÁåAQAUï£À CxÀð

(1) jÃmÉÊ¯ï ªÀvÀðPÀjUÉ ¤ÃqÀÄªÀ ¸Á® ¸Ë®¨sÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ

(2) UÁæºÀPÀjUÉ £ÉÃgÀªÁV ªÉÊAiÀÄÄQÛPÀ ¨ÁåAQAUï ¸ÉÃªÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ

(3) §ºÀ¼ÀªÁzÀ r«qÉAqï/§rØ ªÁgÉAmïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀAUÀæ»¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ


73. E-banking £À AiÀÄ±À¸ÀÄì EzÀgÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É CªÀ®A©vÀªÁVzÉ.

(1) §ºÀÄ¥ÀzÀgÀzÀ gÀPÀëuÁ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ

(2) C¥ÁAiÀÄzÀ PÁªÀ®Ä ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ

(3) EwÛÃa£À zÉÆÃµÀgÀ»vÀ ¸Á¥sïÖ ªÉÃgïUÀ¼ÀÄ

(4) Cw PÀpt PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ ZËPÀlÄÖ.

74. IRDA zÀ ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ CzsÀåPÀëgÀÄ

(1) CdAiÀiï vÁåV

(2) Gfðvï ¥ÀmÉÃ¯ï

(3) n.J¸ï. «dAiÀÄ£ï

(4) AiÀÄÄ.PÉ. ¹£Áí

75. DrnAUï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CPËAnAUï JgÀqÀÆ DyðPÀ ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀªÀÄ§A¢ü¹ªÉ. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸Àj?

(1) ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¯ÉPÀÌ¥ÀvÀæªÀÅ MzÀV¹zÀ DyðPÀ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß zÀÈrüÃPÀj¸À®Ä DrnAUï ¥ÀÄgÁªÉAiÀÄ ¹zÁÞAvÀªÀ£ÀÄß G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

(2) ¯ÉPÀÌ¥ÀvÀæ C¢üPÁjAiÀÄÄ vÀAiÀiÁgÀÄ ªÀiÁrzÀ DyðPÀ ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ½UÉ DrnAUï ¤¨sÀðgÀvÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ DAiÀiÁªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(3) DyðPÀ ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ½UÉ vÀ£Àß C©ü¥ÁæAiÀÄªÀ£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ®Ä DrlgïUÉ ¯ÉPÀÌ¥ÀvÁæZÁgÀzÀ vÀvÀéUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀA¥ÀæzÁAiÀÄUÀ¼À UÀºÀ£ÀªÁzÀ eÁÕ£À«gÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ


234 (37 – A )

69. Among the following methods, which is not

the non-probability sampling method ?

(1) Convenient sampling

(2) Quota sampling

(3) Judgement sampling

(4) Systematic sampling

70. Which test we normally apply for

qualitative data?

(1) 't' test

(2) T test

(3) 2 Chi-square test

(4) 'V' test

71. NABARD has been established on the

recommendation of

(1) Talwar committee

(2) Tandon committee

(3) Narasimhan committee

(4) Shivaraman committee

72. Retail Banking means

(1) Credit facilities extended to retail traders

(2) Providing personal banking services directly to the consumers

(3) Collection of large number of dividend/interest warrants


73. The success of E-banking depends upon

(1) Multi-layer security system

(2) Risk surveillance system

(3) Updated flawless softwares

(4) Stringent legal framework

74. The present chairman of the IRDA is

(1) Ajay Tyagi

(2) Urjit Patel

(3) T.S. Vijayan

(4) U.K Sinha

75. Both auditing and accounting are concerned

with financial statements. Which of the

following is correct?

(1) Auditing uses the theory of evidence

to verify the financial information

made available by Accountancy

(2) Auditing lends credibility dimension

and quality dimension to the financial

statements prepared by the accountant.

(3) Auditor should have thorough

knowledge of accounting concepts and

convention to enable him to express an

opinion on financial statements


234 (38 – A )

76. __________ PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄ DrlgïUÉ PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄ «zÉÃ²Ã ±ÁSÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¨sÉÃn ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ºÀQÌ®è

(1) C¹Ã«ÄvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj

(2) vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ

(3) ¨ÁåAQAUï

(4) £Á£ï-¥Áæ¦ümïªÉÄÃQAUï

77. Drmï ¥ÀÄgÁªÉAiÀÄ ¸Àj¥Àr¸ÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤zsÀðj¸ÀÄªÀ°è PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ CvÀåAvÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ CA±ÀªÁVzÉ

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ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ 234 *234/A* Akpsc.kar.nic.in/234 - Accounts set A.pdf · 234 (3 – A )...

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ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ 234 234/A Akpsc.kar.nic.in/234 - Accounts set A.pdf · 234 (3 – A )...