235 (1 – A )

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9. ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠBíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿áÈÉÃÜáñܤÊæ. PܮܰvÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ÓÜí¨æàÖÜ EípÝ ÜÃæ, Ü¿áËoár BíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Wæãí¨ÜÆWÜڨܪÃÜã BíWÜÉ»ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙæà Aí£ÊÜáÊÝXÃÜáñܤ¨æ.

Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this booklet.

A ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ : 235

*235/A*

®æãàí¨Ü~ ÓÜíTæÂ

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235 (2 – A )

1. JvÀÛgÀzÀ ¥ÀæzÉñÀUÀ½UÉ ºÉÆÃUÀĪÁUÀ ¥Àæw ZÀ®£ÉAiÀÄ PÁ¬Ä¯ÉAiÀÄ OµÀ¢üUÀ¼À£ÀÄß F ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ°è ¤ÃqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ

1) ¥ÀæAiÀiÁtPÉÌ ºÀ£ÉßgÀqÀÄ UÀAmÉ ªÉÆzÀ®Ä

2) ¥ÀæAiÀiÁtPÉÌ MAzÀÄ UÀAmÉ ªÉÆzÀ®Ä

3) ¥ÀæAiÀiÁt DgÀA©ü¹zÀ PÀÆqÀ¯É

4) ZÀ®£É PÁ¬Ä¯ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÆzÀ® sÁªÀ §AzÀ PÀÆqÀ¯Éà PÀAqÀ PÀÆqÀ¯ÉÃ

2. AiÀiÁªÀ ¥ÉÆæPÉÊ£ÉnPï ªÀÄzÀÄÝ JPïìmÁæ¦gÀ«ÄqÀ¯ï CqÀØ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ GAlĪÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ?

1) ªÉÄmÉÆPÉÆè¥ÀæªÉÄÊqï

2) ¹¸Á¥ÉæöÊqï

3) qÉƪÀiï¥ÉjqÉÆãï

4) F J®èªÀÇ

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1) PÀAfäl¯ï Cræ£À¯ï ºÉÊ¥Àgï ¥ÉèùAiÀiÁ

2) qÀAiÀiÁ©n¸ï ªÉÄ°l¸ï

3) ºÉÊ¥Àgï mÉ£Àë£ï

4) ¥É¦ÖPï C®ìgï

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1) CzÀÄ £Á£ÉâAeÉÆÃrAiÀiÁeÉ¥ÉÊ£ï ¸ÀªÉÆäúÀPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨ÉAeÉÆÃqÀAiÉÆeÉ¥ÉÊ£ïUÀ½UÉ ºÉÆîĪÀ ¸ÀÄgÀPÀëvÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁAiÀÄð¹¢ÞAiÀÄzÀÄ

2) CzÀÄ ¸ÉêÀ£É ¤°è¹zÀ PÀÆqÀ¯Éà ªÀÄgÀÄPÀ½¹zÀ ¤zÁæ»Ã£ÀvÉ GAlĪÀiÁqÀzÀÄ

3) fJ©JAiÀÄ£ÀÄß G¢ÝÃ¥À£ÀUÉƽ¹ PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀð»¸ÀzÀÄ

4) ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁzÀ ¨ÉAeÉÆÃqÀAiÀÄeÉ¦Ã£ï §¼ÀPÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¤zÁæ»Ã£ÀvÉAiÀĪÀgÀ ZÀl vÀ¦à À®Ä §¼ÀPÉ DUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

5. F ¥ÉÊQ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¹.J£ï.J¸ï T£ÀßvÉPÁgÀPÀ C®è DzÀgÉ gÁwæAiÀÄ°è UÁqsÀ¤zÉæ §gÀĪÀAvÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

1) ¦jqÁQì£ï

2) qÉʦüºÉÊqÀæ«Ä£Ë

3) ªÉįÁmÉƤ£ï

4) JxÀ£Á¯ï

6. ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀĪÀiï ªÁ¯ÉÆàgÉÃmï C£ÀÄß QjAiÀÄgÀ°è §¼ÀPÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÁUÀ JZÀÑjPÉ ªÀ»¸À¨ÉÃPÀÄ KPÉAzÀgÉ CzÀgÀ°è F §UÉAiÀÄ CqÀØ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄzÀ C¥ÁAiÀÄ«zÉ

1) ºÉ¥ÀmÉÊn¸ï

2) PÀÆzÀ®Ä GzÀÄgÀÄ«PÉ

3) C£ÉÆÃgÉQìAiÀiÁ

4) mÉæªÀÄgï

235 (3 – A )

1. In case of high altitude journey,

anti-motion sickness drugs are best

administered at :

1) Twelve hours before

commencing journey

2) One hour before commencing

journey

3) Immediately after commencing

journey

4) At the first feeling of motion

sickness

2. Which prokinetic drug produce extra

pyramidal side effects :

1) Metoclopramide

2) Cisapride

3) Domperidone

4) All of the above

3. Corticosteroid therapy can aggravate

the following disorders Except:

1) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

2) Diabetes mellitus

3) Hypertension

4) Peptic ulcer

4. Which of the following statements is

not true of zopiclone:

1) It is a nonbenzodiazepine

hypnotic with efficacy and safety

similar to benzodiazepines

2) It does not produce rebound

sleep disturbances on

discontinuation

3) It does not act by potentiating

GABA

4) It is used to wean off insomniacs

from regular benzodiazepine use

5. Which of the following is not a CNS

depressant but increases the tendency

to fall asleep at night:

1) Pyridoxine

2) Diphenhydramine

3) Melatonin

4) Ethanol

6. Sodium valproate should be used with

caution in young children because

they are particularly at risk of

developing the following adverse

effect:

1) Hepatitis

2) Loss of hair

3) Anorexia

4) Tremor

235 (4 – A )

7. ¹¸ï¥Áèn£ï G¢ÝævÀ ªÁAwAiÀÄ ¤AiÀÄAvÀætPÉÌ CvÀåAvÀ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj ªÀªÀÄ£À±ÁªÀÄPÀ

1) ¥ÉÆæPÉÆèÃgï¥ÉgÀf£ï

2) MAqÀ£À¸ÉmÁæ£ï

3) ªÉÄmÉÆPÉÆè¥ÀæªÉÄÊqï

4) ¥ÉÆæ«ÄxÀgÉhÄÊãï

8. ¥ÉÆæÃ¥Àæ£ÉƯÁ¯ï CqÀæ£À°£ï£À F PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß CqÀØ¥Àr¸ÀzÀÄ

1) ¨ÁæAPÉÆr®mÉõÀ£ï (±Áé À£Á¼À)

2) °¥ÉÆð¹¸ï

3) ¸ÁßAiÀÄÄ PÀA¥À£À

4) «ÄræAiÀÄƹ¸ï

9. ¹¯ÉØ£À¦ü¯ï C£ÀÄß F PɼÀV£À OµÀ¢ü ¸Éë¸ÀĪÀ gÉÆÃVUÀ½UÉ ¥Àæw §A¢ü¸À¯ÁVzÉ 1) - CqÉæ£ÀfðPï ¨ÁèPÀgïì 2) - CqÉæ£ÀfðPï ¨ÁèPÀgïì 3) DUÁåð¤Pï £ÉÊmÉæöÊmïì 4) DAfAiÉÆÃmɤì£ï ¥ÀjªÀwð¸ÀĪÀ Qté

¤µÉÃzsÀPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

10. ¯ÉÆêÀÄ£Á¼ÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÁ妸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ «ÄzÀĽ£À°è ºÉÆgÀvÀÄ¥Àr¹ ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÀĪÀ CA±ÀªÉAzÀgÉ

1) ¯ÉÆêÀÄ£Á¼ÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ gÀPÀÛ ºÀjªÀÅ

2) ªÀĢݣÀ °¦qï «°Ã£ÀvÉ

3) OµÀ¢üAiÀÄ pKa ªÀiË®å

4) ªÀiÁzsÀåªÀÄzÀ pH

11. ZÀªÀÄð ¸ÀĹÜwAiÀÄ°èzÁÝUÀ »ÃjPÉ ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR CA±À 1) ªÀĢݣÀ CtÄ vÀÆPÀ 2) C£ÀéAiÀÄzÀ ¸ÀܼÀ 3) ªÀĢݣÀ °¦qï «°Ã£ÀvÉ 4) gÀZÀ£É®AiÀÄ°è G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸ÀĪÀ DzsÁgÀ

ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ

12. ©üÃwAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¢ézsÀÄæªÀ PÁ¬Ä¯ÉUÀ¼À°è F PɼÀV£À ªÀÄzÀÝ£ÀÄß °ÃyAiÀÄ£ïUÉ ¥ÀAiÀiÁðAiÀĪÁV §¼ÀPÉ ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ

1) PÁ§ðªÀÄeÉ¥ÉÊ£ï

2) PÁåj¸ÉÆÃ¥ÉÆæÃqÀ¯ï

3) PÉÆèëĥÀæªÉÄÊ£ï

4) qÉÊFxÉʯï PÁ§ðªÀÄeÉÊ£ï

13. AiÀÄPÀÈwÛ£À°è ªÉÆzÀ®Ä ¸ÁV ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZÀAiÀÄ QæAiÉÄUÀ½UÉ M¼ÀUÁUÀĪÀ ªÀÄzÀ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄ̪ÀiÁr

1) ¦ü£ÉÆèÁ©ðmÉÆ£ï 2) ¥ÉÆæ¥Àæ£ÉƯÁ¯ï 3) ¦ü£ÉÊ¯ï §ÄåleÉÆãï 4) yAiÉÆÃ¥sÉÊü°£ï

14. ¥É¤¹°£À-f AiÀÄ ¥Áè¸Áä CgÉ DAiÀÄĵÀå £ÀªÀeÁvÀ ²±ÀÄ«£À°è C¢üPÀ DVgÀ®Ä PÁgÀt

1) ¥Áè¸Áä ¥ÉÆæÃnãÀÄ ªÀÄlÖªÀÅ PÀrªÉÄ

2) ªÀÄzÀÄÝ ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZÀAiÀÄ QtéUÀ¼ÀÄ C¥Àæ§ÄzÀÞ

3) UÉÆèªÉÄgÀÄ®gï ±ÉÆÃzsÀ£É zÀgÀ PÀrªÉÄ

4) lÆå§Ä®gï ªÀUÁðªÀuÉ QæAiÀiÁ«£Áå¸ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ E£ÀÆß C©üªÀÈ¢ÞUÉÆAr®è¢gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

235 (5 – A )

7. The most effective antiemetic for

controlling cisplatin induced vomiting

is:

1) Prochlorperazine

2) Ondansetron

3) Metoclopramide

4) Promethazine

8. Propranolol does not block the

following action of adrenaline:

1) Bronchodilatation

2) Lipolysis

3) Muscle tremor

4) Mydriasis

9. Sildenafil is contraindicated in

patients taking the following class of

drugs:

1) - adrenergic blockers

2) - adrenergic blockers

3) Organic nitrates

4) Angiotensin converting enzyme

inhibitors

10. The most important factor which

governs diffusion of drugs across

capillaries other than those in the

brain is:

1) Blood flow through the capillary

2) Lipid solubility of the drug

3) pKa value of the drug

4) pH of the medium

11. The most important factor governing

absorption of a drug from intact skin

is:

1) Molecular weight of the drug

2) Site of application

3) Lipid solubility of the drug

4) Nature of the base used in the

formulation

12. The following drug can be used as an

alternative to lithium in mania and

bipolar illness:

1) Carbamazepine

2) Carisoprodol

3) Clomipramine

4) Diethyl carbamazine

13. Select the drug that undergoes

extensive first-pass metabolism in the

liver.

1) Phenobarbitone

2) Propranolol

3) Phenylbutazone

4) Theophylline

14. The plasma half life of penicillin-G is

longer in the new born because their:

1) Plasma protein level is low

2) Drug metabolizing enzymes are

immature

3) Glomerular filtration rate is low

4) Tubular transport mechanisms

are not well Developed

235 (6 – A )

15. MAzÀÄ OµÀ¢üÃAiÀÄ (qÀæUï) ¯ÉÆÃrAUï qÉÆøï£ÀÄß CzÀgÀ ________ ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

1) ªÀÄÆvÀæzÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ «¯ÉêÁj

2) ¥Áè¸Áä CzsÁðAiÀÄĵÀå

3) «vÀgÀuÉ UÁvÀæ

4) «¯ÉêÁj zÀgÀ ¹ÜgÁAPÀ

16. F PɼÀV£À J®èªÀÇ CAvÀgÀ fêÀPÉÆòÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀAzÉñÀªÁºÀPÀUÀ¼ÁV ¸ÀéPÁgÀPÀ ªÀÄzsÀå¹ÜPÉ ¸ÀAeÉÕ ªÀUÁðªÀuÉAiÀÄ°è C¢üãÀªÁV ªÀwð¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ EzÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆgÀvÀÄ¥Àr¹

1) ¸ÉÊQèPï JJªÀiï¦

2) E£Á¹l¯ï mÉæöÊ¥sÁ¸ÉÒÃmï

3) qÉÊC¸Éʯï Vè¸ÀgÁ¯ïUÀ¼ÀÄ

4) f ¥ÉÆæÃn£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ

17. jãÀ¯ï C¸ÀªÀÄ¥ÀðPÀvÉ EgÀĪÀ gÉÆÃVUÀ¼À°è F PɼÀV£À ªÀĢݣÀ «¯ÉÃAiÀÄÄ QæAiÉÆÃn¤£ï «¯ÉÃAiÀÄ vÀVÎUÉ ¸ÀªÀiÁAvÀgÀªÁV vÀVθÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

1) ¥ÉÆæ¥Àæ£ÉƯÁ¯ï

2) qÉÊUÁQì£ï

3) °UÉÆßPÉÊ£ï

4) ªÉgÀ¥À«Ä¯ï

18. C£Á¦ü¯ÁQÖÖPï CWÁvÀ DzÁUÀ CqÀæ£À°£ï ¥ÀÆgÉÊPÉAiÀÄ Cw ¸ÀªÀÄ¥ÀðPÀ ºÁ¢ 1) EAmÁæPÁrðAiÀiÁPï 2) EAmÁæ«Ã£À¸ï 3) EAmÁæªÀĸÀÄÌöå®gï 4) ¸À¨ïPÀÄmÉäAiÀĸï

19. (©ÃmÁ) CqÉæ£ÀfðPÀ ¥Àæw §A¢üPÀªÀÅ, ºÉZÀÄѪÀj 1 ¥Àæw§AzsÀ£É, ªÁå¸ÉÆÌqÉʯÉÃlgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àæw DQìqÀQ UÀÄtzsÀªÀÄð ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄ̪ÀiÁr

1) PÁªÉðqÉʯÁ¯ï 2) ¸É°¥ÉÆæ¯Á¯ï 3) C¸É§ÄåmÉÆïÁ¯ï 4) ªÉÄmÉÆ¥ÉÆæ¯Á¯ï

20. ¥ÉæÃgÀPÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ JAzÀgÉ 1) ªÀÄzÀÄÝ ªÀUÀðzÀ ¥ÀƪÀð ªÀiÁzÀj ¸ÀzÀ¸Àå 2) ªÀÄzÀÄÝ ªÀUÀðzÀ ºÀ¼ÉAiÀÄ ¸ÀzÀ¸Àå 3) ¤¶ÌçAiÀĪÁVzÀÝ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ zÉúÀzÉƼÀUÉ

¸ÀQæAiÀÄ ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZÀAiÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ 4) zÉúÀzÀ CAUÁA±ÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀAUÀæºÀªÁV

PÀæªÉÄÃt gÀPÀÛ¥ÀjZÀ®£ÉUÉ PÀæªÉÄÃt ©qÀÄUÀqÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀAvÀºÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ

21. gÀÆrüUÀvÀªÁV ¸Éë¸ÀÄwÛzÀÝ F ªÀĢݣÀ ¸ÉêÀ£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¢rüÃgï ¤°è¹zÁUÀ ¥ÀæwPÀÆ® ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ ©ÃgÀĪÀAvÀºÀzÀÄ 1) PÉÆPÉãï 2) PÀ£Áß©¸ï 3) PÉÆèäqÉÊ£ï 4) F ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ

22. ¹ÖgÁAiÉÄØÃvÀgÉ GjAiÀÄÆvÀgÀ»vÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÉÄÊUÉæãï£À°è ºÉZÀÄÑ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj

1) OgÁgÀ»vÀ 2) OgÁ¸À»vÀ 3) JUÉÆðlªÉÄÊ£ïVAvÀ 4) ¥ÉÆæ¥Àæ£ÉƯÉÆïï eÉÆvÉUÉ ¨ÉgÉvÁUÀ

235 (7 – A )

15. The loading dose of a drug is

governed by its:

1) Renal clearance

2) Plasma half life

3) Volume of distribution

4) Elimination rate constant

16. All of the following subserve as

intracellular second messengers in

receptor mediated signal transduction

Except:

1) Cyclic AMP

2) Inositol trisphosphate

3) Diacyl glycerols

4) G proteins

17. In patients with renal insufficiency

the clearance of the following drug is

reduced parallel to the reduction in

creatinine clearance:

1) Propranolol

2) Digoxin

3) Lignocaine

4) Verapamil

18. The most appropriate route of

administration for adrenaline in a case

of anaphylactic shock is:

1) Intracardiac

2) Intravenous

3) Intramuscular

4) Subcutaneous

19. Select the β-adrenergic blocker that

has additional αl blocking, vasodilator

and antioxidant properties:

1) Carvedilol

2) Celiprolol

3) Acebutolol

4) Metoprolol

20. A prodrug is

1) The prototype member of a class

of drugs

2) The oldest member of a class of

drugs

3) An inactive drug that is

transformed in the body to an

active metabolite

4) A drug that is stored in body

tissues and is then gradually

released in the circulation

21. Adverse consequences may follow

sudden discontinuation of the

following drug after chronic intake:

1) Cocaine

2) Cannabis

3) Clonidine

4) All of the above

22. The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory

drugs are more effective in migraine:

1) Without aura

2) With aura

3) Than ergotamine

4) When combined with

propranolol

235 (8 – A )

23. ¨ÉÃ¥ÀðrPÉ CjªÀ½PÉ GAlĪÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ EzÀÄ:

1) PÉlªÉÄÊ£ï

2) ¥sÉAmÁ¤¯ï

3) ¥ÉÆæ¥ÉÆ¥sÁ¯ï

4) ‘J’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘©’ JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj

24. ¥Àæw ¸ÉÊPÉÆÃnPï ªÀÄzÀÄÝ, DPÀÆå®gï mÁQì¹nAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¢ÃWÀðPÁ°PÀ §¼ÀPÉ £ÀAvÀgÀ GAlĪÀiÁqÀĪÀAvÀºÀzÀÄ

1) yAiÉÆÃjqÀf£ï

2) ºÁå¯ÉÆÃ¥ÉjqÁ¯ï

3) ¥sÀÄè¥ÉAwPÁì¯ï

4) ¦ªÉÆeÉÊqï

25. ªÉÄUÀ¯ÉƨÁè¹ÖPï C¤Ã«ÄAiÀÄ DUÀ¨ÉÃPÁzÀgÉ

1) «l«Ä£ï ‘©12’ PÉÆgÀvÉ PÁgÀt,¥sÉÆðPï DªÀÄè PÉÆgÀvÉ C®è

2) ¥sÉÆðPï DªÀÄè PÉÆgÀvÉ PÁgÀt, «l«Ä£ï ‘©12’ PÉÆgÀvÉ C®è

3) «l«Ä£ï ‘©12’ CxÀªÁ ¥sÉÆðPï DªÀÄè JgÀqÀgÀ PÉÆgÀvÉAiÀiÁUÀ°Ã C®è

4) «l«Ä£ï ‘©12’ + ¥sÉÆðPï DªÀÄèzÀ ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ PÉÆgÀvÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ

26. F PɼÀV£À ªÀÄzÀÄÝ ¥ÀæwUÀgÀuÉPÁgÀPÀUÀ¼À ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ vÀVθÀÄvÀÛzÉ

1) «±Á® ªÁå¥ÀPÀ ªÁå¦ÛAiÀÄ ¥Àæw fêÀPÀ

2) ¹ªÉÄmÉÊqÉÊ£ï

3) D¹àj£ï

4) ªÀiËTPÀ UÀ sÀð¤gÉÆÃzsÀPÀ

27. ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå CjªÀ½PÉUÀ¼ÀÄ £ÉÆêÀÅPÁgÀPÀ ±À¸ÀÛç aQvÉìAiÀÄ°è ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀªÁV ¤±ÀÑ®vÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß GAlĪÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ 1) ªÉÆÃlgï PÁmÉðPïì 2) ¨Á¸À¯ï UÁåAVèAiÀiÁ 3) xÁ®ªÀĸï 4) ¨É£ÀÄߺÀÄj

28. ¥ÉÆæÃeÉ¹Ö£ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ J¸ÉÆÖçÃd£ïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀiËTPÀ UÀ sÀð¤gÉÆÃzsÀPÀ UÀĽUÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃf¸À®Ä PÁgÀt

1) J¸ÉÆÖçÃd£ï ¥ÉÆæeɹ֣ï£À CqÀØ ¥ÀjuÁªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ¥Àæw§A¢ü ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

2) ¥ÉÆæeɹ֣ï J¸ÉÆÖçÃeÉ£ï£À CqÀØ ¥ÀjuÁªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ¥Àæw§A¢ü ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

3) ºÀwÛQÌzÀ CAqÉÆÃvÀàwÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß JgÀqÀÆ ¹£ÀgïeÉÊ¸ï ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ

4) ºÉƸÉÖöÊ¯ï ¸À«ðPÀ¯ï ªÀÄÆåPÀ¸ï GvÀàwÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß JgÀqÀÆ ¹£ÀgïeÉÊ¸ï ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ.

29. ¦¯ÉÆPÁ¦ð£ï PÀtÄÚ ºÀ¤UÀ½VAvÀ nªÉƯÁ¯ï PÀtÄÚ ºÀ¤UÀ¼ÀÄ UÀÆèPÉÆêÀÄ gÉÆÃVUÀ½UÉ GvÀÛªÀĪÁVgÀ®Ä PÁgÀt

1) nªÉƯÉÆÃ¯ï ¦¯ÉÆPÁ¦ð£ïVAvÀ ºÉZÀÄÑ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj

2) nªÉƯÉƯï AiÀÄÆ«AiÉÆøÉÌgÀ¯ï ºÉÆgÀ ºÀjªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉaÑ ÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

3) nªÉƯÉƯï PÀtÂÚUÉ PÀrªÉÄ CqÀØ ¥ÀjuÁªÀĪÀÅAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ

4) nªÉƯÉƯïUÉ ªÀåwjPÀÛ aºÉßUÀ¼ÀÄ E®è

235 (9 – A )

23. ‘Dissociative anaesthesia’ is produced

by:

1) Ketamine

2) Fentanyl

3) Propofol

4) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

24. The antipsychotic drug most likely to

cause ocular toxicity on long-term use

is:

1) Thioridazine

2) Haloperidol

3) Flupenthixol

4) Pimozide

25. Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in:

1) Vitamin B12 but not folic acid

deficiency

2) Folic acid but not Vitamin B12

deficiency

3) Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid

deficiency

4) Only combined Vitamin B12 +

folic acid deficiency

26. The following drug reduces the effect

of oral anticoagulants:

1) Broad spectrum antibiotic

2) Cimetidine

3) Aspirin

4) Oral contraceptive

27. General anaesthetics produce

immobility in response to painful

surgical stimuli by acting primarily at

the:

1) Motor cortex

2) Basal ganglia

3) Thalamus

4) Spinal cord

28. A progestin and an estrogen are

combined in oral contraceptive pill

because:

1) The estrogen blocks the side

effects of the progestin

2) The progestin blocks the side

effects of the estrogen

3) Both synergise to suppress

ovulation

4) Both synergise to produce hostile

cervical Mucus

29. Timolol eye drops are preferred over

pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma

patients because:

1) Timolol is more effective than

pilocarpine

2) Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-

scleral outflow

3) Timolol produces less ocular

side effects

4) There are no contraindications to

timolol

235 (10 – A )

30. ªÉÄxÀ£Á¯ï «µÀzÀ°è, ExÉ£Á¯ï£ÀÄß §¼ÀPÉ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä PÁgÀtªÉAzÀgÉ

1) CzÀÄ ªÉÄxÀ£Á¯ï ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZÀAiÀÄ QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CzÀjAzÁUÀĪÀ £ÀAdÄ GvÀà£ÀߪÀ£ÀÄß vÀqÉAiÀÄÄvÀÛzÉ

2) ªÉÄxÀ£Á¯ï ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZÀAiÀÄ QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀæZÉÆâ¹ gÀPÀÛzÀ°è CzÀgÀ ªÀÄlÖ vÀVθÀÄvÀÛzÉ

3) «ÄxÉ£Á°£À QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀæwgÉÆâü¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

4) «ÄxÉ£Á¯ï £Á±À¥Àr¹zÀ ¥sÉÆïÉÃmï ¸ÀAUÀæºÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀÄgÀÄ ¥ÀÆgÉʸÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

31. F PɼÀV£À ¥Àæw PÁå£Àìgï OµÀ¢ü vÉUÉzÀÄPÉÆAqÀªÀgÀÄ D¯ÉÆ̺Á¯ï ¸Éë¹zÀgÉ qÉʸÀ¯ï¦ügÁªÀiï£ÀAvÀºÀ ¥ÀæwQæAiÉÄUÉ M¼ÀUÁUÀÄvÁÛgÉ.

1) qÉÊPÁ§ðeÉÊ£ï

2) ¥ÉÆæPÁ§ðeÉÊ£ï

3) ªÉĮᮣï

4) ºÉÊqÁæQìAiÀÄÆjAiÀiÁ

32. ªÉÄ£ÉÆqÉÊAiÉÆ£ï («l«Ä£ï K3) PɤðPÀÖgÀ¸ï C£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ GAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ

1) »ÃªÀiÁ¯É¹¸ï£ÀÄß ¥ÉæÃj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

2) ©°gÀÄ©£ï£À UÀÄèPÉÆÃgÉƤqÉõÀ£ï£ÀÄß ¥Àæw §A¢ü¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

3) ¥Áè¸Àä ¥ÉÆæÃnÃ£ï §zÀÞ ©®ÄgÀÄ©£À£ÀÄß ¥À®èl¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

4) (1) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (2) JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj

33. ªÀiËTPÀ PÀ©âuÁA±ÀzÀ ¸ÉêÀ£ÉAiÀÄ »ÃjPÉAiÀÄ eÉÆvÉAiÀÄ°è EzÀ£ÀÄß ¤Ãr ªÀÄvÀÛµÀÄÖ ¸ÀÄUÀªÀÄUÉƽ¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

1) DªÀÄèºÁjUÀ¼ÀÄ

2) mÉmÁæ¸ÉÊQè£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ

3) ¥sÁ¸ÉÖÃmïUÀ¼ÀÄ

4) C¸ÁÌ©ðPï DªÀÄè

34. F OµÀ¢ü ¸ÉêÀ£É ªÀiÁqÀĪÀªÀgÀÄ ªÀÄzÀå¸ÉêÀ£É ªÀiÁqÀzÀAvÉ JZÀÑgÀªÀ»¸À¨ÉÃPÀÄ.

1) ªÉĨÉAqÀeÉÆïï

2) ªÉÄmÉÆæäqÀeÉÆïï

3) ªÉÄyªÀÄeÉÆïï

4) ªÉÄl«ÄeÉÆïï

35. EArAiÀÄ£ï ¥sÁªÀÄðPÉÆæAiÀiÁzÀ (IP) K¼À£Éà DªÀÈwÛ ¥ÀæPÀn¹zÀ ªÀµÀð

1) 2010 2) 2014 3) 2016 4) 2017

36. 90% ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 50% D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀzÀ°è ¨Égɹ 100 mL, 70% D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ï vÀAiÀiÁj¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

1) 45 mL of 90% + 55 mL of 50%

2) 50 mL of 90% + 50 mL of 50%

3) 60 mL of 90% + 40 mL of 50%

4) 70 mL of 90% + 30 mL of 50%

235 (11 – A )

30. Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning

because it;

1) Inhibits the metabolism of

methanol and generation of toxic

metabolite

2) Stimulates the metabolism of

methanol and reduces its blood

level

3) Antagonises the actions of

methanol

4) Replenishes the folate stores

depleted by Methanol

31. Patients treated with the following

anticancer drug are likely to develop a

disulfiram like reaction on taking

alcohol:

1) Dacarbazine

2) Procarbazine

3) Melphalan

4) Hydroxyurea

32. Menadione (Vitamin K3) can produce

kernicterus in neonates by:

1) Inducing haemolysis

2) Inhibiting glucuronidation of

bilirubin

3) Displacing plasma protein bound

bilirubin

4) Both (1) and (2) are correct

33. Absorption of oral iron preparations

can be facilitated by

co-administering:

1) Antacids

2) Tetracyclines

3) Phosphates

4) Ascorbic acid

34. Patients treated with the following

drug should be cautioned not to

consume alcoholic beverages:

1) Mebendazole

2) Metronidazole

3) Methimazole

4) Metamizol

35. The seventh edition of Indian

Pharmacopeia (IP) was published in

the year

1) 2010

2) 2014

3) 2016

4) 2017

36. In what proportions should alcohol of

90% and 50% strengths be mixed to

make 70% of 100 mL alcohol

1) 45 mL of 90% + 55 mL of 50%

2) 50 mL of 90% + 50 mL of 50%

3) 60 mL of 90% + 40 mL of 50%

4) 70 mL of 90% + 30 mL of 50%

235 (12 – A )

37. zsÀ£À DAiÀiÁ£ÀÄ ¸À¥sÁåðPÉÖAmï J®èªÀ£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ EzÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆgÀvÀÄ¥Àr¹

1) ¨ÉAeÁ¯ïPÉÆäAiÀĪÀiï PÉÆèÃgÉÊqï

2) PÁå°ìAiÀĪÀiï N°AiÉÄÃmï

3) ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀĪÀiï ¯Áj¯ï ¸À¯ÉáÃmï

4) ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀĪÀiï ¹ÖAiÀÄgÉÃmï

38. JuÉÚ PÀgÀUÀ§®è ¨ÁºÀåvÀ®¸ÁAzÀævÁºÁæ¸ÀPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ 1) «°Ã£ÀPÀUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀ zÀPÀë ªÀÄzsÀåªÀwð

2) ºÉÊqÉÆææü°PïUÀ¼ÀÄ

3) d®-vÉÊ®-JªÀįï±À£ï£ÀÄß GvÁࢸÀĪÀ JªÀį﹥sÉÊgï DV §¼ÀPÉAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

4) C¢üPÀ HLB ªÀiË®åUÀ¼À£ÀÄß¼ÀîªÀÅ

39. PÉÆñÀ ©üwÛAiÀÄ gÁ¸ÁAiÀĤPÀ gÀZÀ£É, UÁæªÀiï ¥Á¹nªï fëUÀ¼À°è F J®èªÀ£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉÆAqÀÄ EgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. DzÀgÉ EzÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆgÀvÀÄ¥Àr¹

1) °¥ÉÆ¥Á°¸ÁåPÀgÉÊqïUÀ¼ÀÄ

2) °¥ÉÆ¥ÉÆæÃnãïUÀ¼ÀÄ

3) ¥É¦ÖqÉÆUÉèöÊPÀ£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ

4) mÉÊPÉÆìÄPï DªÀÄèUÀ¼ÀÄ

40. UÁæªÀiï ¥Á¹nªï PÁPÉÊUÉ GzÁºÀgÀuÉ

1) PÉÆèùÖçrAiÀĪÀiï

2) £ÉʸÉjAiÀiÁ ªÉĤAfmÉÊqïì

3) ¸ÀÆåqÉÆêÉÆ£Á¸ï

4) ¸Áé¥ÉʯÉÆÃPÁPÀ¸ï OjAiÀĸï

41. D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ï ºÀÄzÀÄUÀÄ«PÉ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄAiÀÄ°è

1) ¥ÉÊgÀĪÉÃmï C¹mÉÆãï DV ¥ÀjªÀvÀð£É DUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

2) ¥ÉÊgÀĪÉÃmï ExÉ£Á¯ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁ§ð£ï qÉÊ DPÉìöÊqï DV ¥ÀjªÀvÀð£É DUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

3) ¥ÉÊgÀĪÉÃmï ¯ÁåPÉÖÃmï DV ¥ÀjªÀvÀð£É DUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

4) ¥ÉÊgÀĪÉÃmï DPÀì¯ÉÆÃC¹mÉÃmï DV ¥ÀjªÀvÀð£É DUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

42. ¦üãÁ¯ïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß D¯ÉÆÌà ºÁ°VAvÀ ©ü£Àß JAzÀÄ ¸ÀÄ®¨sÀªÁV ¥ÀævÉåÃQ¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ PÁgÀt

1) D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀĪÀiï ¨ÉÊPÁ¨ÉÆÃð£ÉÃmï£À°è «°Ã£ÀªÁUÀĪÀŪÀÅ DzÀgÉ ¦üãÁ¯ï ºÁUÁUÀzÀÄ

2) D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀĪÀiï ºÉÊqÁæPÉìöÊr£À°è «°Ã£ÀªÁUÀĪÀªÀÅ DzÀgÉ ¦üãÁ¯ï ºÁUÁUÀzÀÄ

3) ¦üãÁ¯ïUÀ¼ÀÄ, ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀĪÀiï ¨ÉÊPÁ§ð£ÉÃmï£À°è «°Ã£ÀªÁUÀĪÀªÀÅ DzÀgÉ D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ïUÀ¼ÀÄ ºÁUÁUÀzÀÄ

4) ¦üãÁ¯ïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀĪÀiï ºÉÊqÁæPÉìöÊr£À°è «°Ã£ÀªÁUÀĪÀªÀÅ DzÀgÉ D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ïUÀ¼À®è.

43. D®àçeÉÆîªÀiï C£ÀÄߪÀÅzÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àæ¸ÁzsÀ£À µÉqÀÆå¯ïUÉ M¼À¥ÀqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

1) µÉqÀÆå¯ï f

2) µÉqÀÆå¯ï JZï1

3) µÉqÀÆå¯ï eÉ

4) µÉqÀÆå¯ï JPïì

235 (13 – A )

37. Anionic surfactant includes all,

EXCEPT

1) Benzalkonium chloride

2) Calcium oleate

3) Sodium lauryl sulphate

4) Sodium stearate

38. Oil soluble surfactants

1) Are efficient solubilizing agent

2) Are hydrophilic

3) Can used as emulsifier to

produce water-in-oil emulsion

4) Have high HLB values

39. The chemical composition of cell

wall of Gram-positive organism

contains all below, EXCEPT

1) Lipopolysaccharides

2) Lipoproteins

3) Peptidoglycans

4) Teichoic acids

40. An example of Gram-positive cocci

1) Clostridium

2) Neisseria meningitides

3) Pseudomonas

4) Staphylococcus aureus

41. In alcohol fermentation process

1) Pyruvate is converted into

acetone

2) Pyruvate is converted to ethanol

and carbon dioxide

3) Pyruvate is converted to lactate

4) Pyruvate is converted to

oxaloacetate

42. Phenols can be easily distinguished

from alcohols because

1) Alcohols are soluble in sodium

bicarbonate, but phenols are not

2) Alcohols are soluble in sodium

hydroxide, but phenols are not

3) Phenols are soluble in sodium

bicarbonate, but alcohols are not

4) Phenols are soluble in sodium

hydroxide, but alcohols are not

43. Alprazolam falls under which

schedule of Drugs and Cosmetic

Rules

1) Schedule G

2) Schedule H1

3) Schedule J

4) Schedule X

235 (14 – A )

44. ±ÀÆ£ÀåªÀUÀðzÀ gÁ¸ÁAiÀĤPÀ QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ zÀgÀªÀÅ

1) JgÀqÀÆ QæAiÀiÁPÁjUÀ¼À ¸ÁgÀvÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É CªÀ®A©¹gÀÄvÀÛzÉ

2) MAzÀÄ QæAiÀiÁPÁjAiÀÄ ¸ÁgÀvÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É CªÀ®A©¹gÀÄvÀÛzÉ

3) QæAiÀiÁPÁjAiÀÄ G½PÉ ¸ÁgÀvÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É CªÀ®A©¹gÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

4) QæAiÀiÁPÁjUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀévÀAvÀæ.

45. F ¥ÉÊQ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀiËTPÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ UÀjµÀ× ªÀiËTPÀ f뮨sÀåvÉ ¥ÀqÉ¢zÉ.

1) gÁ¸ÁAiÀĤPÀªÁV C¹ÜgÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ

2) C¢üPÀ ªÉÆzÀ® ªÀUÀðzÀ ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZÀAiÀÄQæAiÉÄ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ

3) C¢üPÀ d¯ÁPÁAQë ªÀÄzÀÄÝ

4) C¢üPÀ d®«PÀµÀðPÀ DzÀgÀÆ d®«°Ã£ÀPÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ.

46. F ¥ÁæªÀ¸ÉÜ II ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZÀAiÀÄ QæAiÉÄUÀ¼À ¥ÉÊQ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ I WÀlÖzÀ ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZÀAiÀÄ QæAiÉÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀÄÆvÀæzÀ°è ºÉÆgÀºÁPÀĪÀAvÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ?

1) UÀÆèPÉÆgÉÆäqÉõÀ£ï

2) d®«¨sÀd£É

3) GvÀ̵ÀðuÉ

4) C¥ÀPÀµÀðuÉ

47. ¸ÁéAiÀÄvÀÛ £ÀgÀªÀÄAqÀ® ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ¸Àj

1) C¦ügÉAmï £ÀÆågÁ£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀAeÉÕUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¹J£ïJ¸ï¤AzÀ J¥sÉPÀÖgï CAUÀUÀ½UÉ MAiÀÄÄåvÀÛzÉ.

2) ¥ÁågÁ¹A¥ÉxÀnPï £ÀÆågÁ£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ £ÉÆgɦ£É¦üæ£ï C£ÀÄß J¥sÉPÀÖgï CAUÀPÉÌ ©qÀÄUÀqÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ.

3) ¹A¥ÀxÉnPï £ÀÆågÁ£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ C¹mÉʯïPÉÆðãï C£ÀÄß J¥sÉPÀÖgï CAUÀUÀ¼À°è ©qÀÄUÀqÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ.

4) ¹A¥ÀxÉnPï UÁåAVèAiÀiÁ£ï£À £ÀÆågÉÆÃ¥Àæ¸ÁgÁAUÀªÀÅ C¹mÉʯï PÉÆð£ï

48. DxÉÆÃð¸ÁÖöånPï ºÉÊ¥ÉÆÃmÉ£Àë£ïUÉ PÁgÀtªÁUÀĪÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ

1) DªÉÆèÃr¦£ï

2) ¯ÉƸÀlð£ï

3) ¥ÁæeÉÆù£ï

4) gÁ«Ä¦æ¯ï

49. PÉÆ°£É¸ÉÖgÁ¸ï QtéUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤µÉâü¸ÀĪÀ MAzÀÄ OµÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è, F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ®PÀëtUÀ¼ÀÄ PÀAqÀħgÀÄvÀÛªÉ?

1) ±ÀĵÀÌ (Mt) ¨Á¬Ä

2) «ÄAiÉƹ¸ï

3) mÁQPÁrðAiÀiÁ

4) ªÀÄÆwæÃAiÀÄ zsÁgÀuÉ

235 (15 – A )

44. The rate of zero order reaction is

1) Depends on concentration of

both reactants

2) Depends on concentration of one

reactant

3) Depends on the residual

concentration of the reactants

4) Independent of reactants

45. Which of the following types of drugs

possess maximum oral bioavailability

1) Chemically unstable drugs

2) Drugs with high first-pass

metabolism

3) Highly hydrophilic drugs

4) Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble

in aqueous solutions

46. Which of the following phase II

metabolic reactions make phase I

metabolites readily excretable in urine

1) Glucuronidation

2) Hydrolysis

3) Oxidation

4) Reduction

47. Which of the following statement is

correct regarding to autonomic

nervous system?

1) Afferent neurons carry signals

from the CNS to the effector

organs

2) Parasympathetic neurons release

norepinephrine in the effector

organ

3) Sympathetic neurons release

acetylcholine in the effector

organs

4) The neurotransmitter at the

sympathetic ganglion is

acetylcholine

48. A drug causing orthostatic

hypotension

1) Amlodipine

2) Losartan

3) Prazosin

4) Ramipril

49. A drug which inhibits cholinesterase

enzymes shows which of the

following symptom?

1) Dry mouth

2) Miosis

3) Tachycardia

4) Urinary retention

235 (16 – A )

50. UÀ¨sÀðzsÁgÀt CªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è gÀPÀÛzÉÆvÀÛqÀ vÀVθÀĪÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAd¸À ªÀÄzÀÄÝ. 1) C°¹ÌgÉ£ï 2) ºÉÊqÀæ®f£ï 3) gÁ«Ä¦æ¯ï 4) mÉ°ä¸Álð£ï

51. C¤® PÉÆæªÀÄmÉÆUÀæ¦ü F QæAiÀiÁ «£Áå¸ÀzÀ DzsÁjvÀ 1) C¢ü±ÉÆõÀuÉ 2) gÁ² «vÀgÀuÉ 3) UÁvÀæ §»µÀÌgÀt 4) F J®èªÀÇ

52. F ¥ÉÊQ AiÀiÁªÀ ªÀÄzÀÝ£ÀÄß ¸ÉÃj¹ ¯ÉƪÉÇqÉÆ¥ÁzÀ CAZÀÄ CqÀØ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÀ¦à À§ºÀÄzÀÄ? (£Á¹AiÀiÁ, ºÉÊ¥ÉÆmÉ£Àë£ï, PÁrðAiÀiÁPï CgÉÊvï«ÄAiÀiÁ¸ï) 1) CªÀÄ£ïlqÉÊ£ï 2) PÁ©ðqÉÆÃ¥À 3) gÉÆæ¤gÉÆïï 4) mÉÆïÁÌ¥ÉÆ£ï

53. F PÁgÀPÀUÀ¼À ¥ÉÊQ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸À¨ï¸ÁÖ¤ëAiÀiÁ¤UÁæzÀ°è qÉÆÃ¥ÁªÉÄÊ£ï£ÀÄß ©qÀÄUÀqÉ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä G¢ÝÃ¥À£ÀUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ?

1) CªÀÄAmïqÉÊ£ï 2) ¯ÉªÉÇÃqÉÆÃ¥Á 3) ¯ÉÆgÀnr£ï 4) gÁ«Ä¦æ¯ï

54. F PɼÀV£ÀA±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¥Àæw ¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀiÁ KeÉAlÄUÀ¼À M¼À¸ÉÃ¥ÀðqÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÁjÃPÀgÀtªÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÉgÉÆâà ¸ÉàöÊ£À¯ï ªÁ»AiÀÄ°è GAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ. C¥ÀªÁzÀªÉAzÀgÉ

1) ªÀĢݣÀ °¦qï «°Ã£ÀvÉ

2) ªÀĢݣÀ PÀ¤µÀÖ ¥Àæw §AzsÀPÀ ¸ÁgÀvÉ

3) ªÀĢݣÀ CtÄvÀÆPÀ

4) ªÀĢݣÀ ¥ÉÆæÃn£ï §AzsÀ

55. ªÉ¹PÉAmï QªÉÆÃvÉgÀ¦ PÁgÀPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ F J¯Áè CA±ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ. EzÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆgÀvÀÄ¥Àr¹

1) qÉÆPÉÆìgÀÄ©¹£ï

2) EqÀgÀÄ©¹£ï

3) «ÄxÉÆmÉæPÉìÃmï

4) «£ïQæ¹Öãï

56. ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀæwPÁgÀPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÉÊmÉÆà mÁQìPï ¥ÀjuÁªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß F ¥ÉÊQ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀªÀÅ.

1) £ÀÆåQè¬ÄPï DªÀÄè GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ºÀĹ ¥ÀAiÀiÁðAiÀĪÁV ªÀwð¹

2) rJ£ïJ ¸ÀA±ÉèõÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥Àæw §A¢ü¹ r.J£ï.J. ¥ÀævÁåªÀÄèPÀUÀ¼À £ÀqÀÄªÉ ¸ÉÃgÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ

3) DgïJ£ïJ ¸ÀA±ÉèõÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥Àæw §A¢ü¹ - Dgï.J£ï..J ¥ÀævÁåªÀÄèPÀUÀ¼À £ÀqÀÄªÉ ¸ÉÃgÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ

4) ªÉÄÊPÉÆæà lÆ姯ïì GvÉÛÃf¹ ¹ÜjÃPÀj¸ÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ

235 (17 – A )

50. Appropriate antihypertensive

treatment choice during pregnancy

1) Aliskiren

2) Hydralazine

3) Ramipril

4) Telmisartan

51. Gas chromatography is based on

mechanism of

1) Adsorption

2) Mass distribution

3) Size exclusion

4) All of the above

52. Which of the following drug can be

added to decrease the peripheral

adverse effects (nausea, hypotension,

cardiac arrhythmias) of levapoda?

1) Amantadine

2) Carbidopa

3) Ropinirole

4) Tolcapone

53. Which of the following agent

stimulates dopamine release in the

substantianigra?

1) Amantadine

2) Levodopa

3) Loratidine

4) Ramipril

54. A1l below factors influence the

penetration and concentration of

antibacterial agents in cerbospinal

fluid, EXCEPT

1) Lipid solubility of the drug

2) Minimum inhibitory

concentration (MIC) of the drug

3) Molecular weight of the drug.

4) Protein binding of the drug

55. Vesicant chemotherapy agents

includes all the following, EXCEPT

1) Doxorubicin

2) Idarubicin

3) Methotrexate

4) Vincristine

56. Antimetabolites exert their cytotoxic

effects by which of the following?

1) Acting as false substitutions in

the production of nucleic acids

2) Inhibiting DNA synthesis by

sliding between DNA base pairs

3) Inhibiting RNA synthesis by

sliding between RNA base pairs

4) Promoting micro tubules

assembly and stabilization

235 (18 – A )

57. AiÀiÁªÀ ¥Àæw PÁAiÀÄzÀ ®¹PÉ CvÀå¢üPÀ GzÀÝzÀ ¹ÃgÀA CzsÁðAiÀÄĵÀåªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢zÉ?

1) IgA

2) IgE

3) IgG

4) IgM

58. EAmÁæxÉPÀ° DV ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁUÀzÀ PɪÉÆxÉgÀ¦ PÁgÀPÀ 1) ¸ÉÊmÁgÁ©£ï 2) ºÉÊqÉÆæÃPÁnð¸ÉÆãï 3) «ÄxÉÆÃmÉæPÉìÃmï 4) «AQæ¹Öãï

59. ¨ÉAeÉÆÃqÀAiÀÄeÉÆqÀAiÀiÁf¦£ï «µÀPÉÌ ¥ÀævËåµÀzsÀ 1) ¥sÀÆèªÀÄeɤ¯ï 2) ¥sÉÆðPï DªÀÄè 3) J£ï-C¹mÉʯﹹÖãï 4) ¦jqÁQì£ï

60. gÀPÀÛ£Á¼ÀzÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ PÉÆqÀĪÀ OµÀ¢üAiÀÄ C£ÀÄ¥ÀæªÀiÁt 2 mg ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CzÉà ªÀiËTPÀ C£ÀÄ¥ÀæªÀiÁt 4 mg. F CAvÀgÀPÉÌ PÁgÀt

1) ¨ÉÃgÉ ¨ÉÃgÉ ªÀiÁUÀðUÀ¼À°è ªÀĢݣÀ fë ®¨sÀåvÉ ¨ÉÃgÉAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

2) ¨ÉÃgÉ ¨ÉÃgÉ ªÀiÁUÀðUÀ¼À°è ªÀÄzÀÄÝ «vÀgÀuÉ ¨ÉÃgÉ ¨ÉÃgÉAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

3) ««zsÀ ªÀiÁUÀðUÀ¼À°è ªÀĢݣÀ «¯ÉêÁj ¨ÉÃgÉAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

4) ZÀAiÀÄQæAiÉÄAiÀÄÄ ««zsÀ ªÀiÁUÀðUÀ¼À°è ¨ÉÃgÉ ¨ÉÃgÉAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

61. ¹Ãdgïì ¤AiÀÄAvÀætPÉÌ aQvÁì DAiÉÄÌ

1) ¯ÉÆgÁeÉ¥ÁªÀiï IV

2) ¦ü£ÉÊmÁ¬Ä£ï IV

3) «ÄqÀeÉÆïÁªÀiï IV

4) qÀAiÀiÁeÉ¥ÁªÀiï IV

62. KnæAiÀįï DgÉÊwäAiÀiÁ¸ï£À°è EPÉÆÖæPï GvÀìfð¹zÀ zÀgÀ 220 - 300/¤«ÄµÀPÉÌ EzÀÝgÉ EzÀ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ£À߯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

1) mÁåQÃAiÀiÁjwäAiÀiÁ¸ï

2) DnæAiÀįï mÁåQPÁrðAiÀiÁ

3) CnæAiÀÄ¯ï ¥sÀèlgï

4) CnæAiÀÄ¯ï ¥sÉÊ©æ¯ÉõÀ£ï

63. ªÀgÀ¥sÉj£ï ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀĪÀiï JgÀqÀÄ ¸ÀªÀiÁAVUÀ¼À (Dgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ J¸ï) gÉøɫÄPï «Ä±Àæt EªÀÅUÀ¼À C£ÀÄPÀæªÀÄ CzsÀð fëvÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

1) Dgï – 35UÀAmÉ, J¸ï - 50 UÀAmÉ

2) Dgï – 50 UÀAmÉ, J¸ï – 35 UÀAmÉ

3) Dgï – 38 UÀAmÉ, J¸ï – 47 UÀAmÉ

4) Dgï – 47 UÀAmÉ, J¸ï – 38 UÀAmÉ

64. ªÀÄÆåPÉÆøÀ¯ï gÉÆÃUÀ¤gÉÆÃzsÀPÀvÉ GAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ EªÀÄÄå£ÉÆÃUÉÆèé£ïUÀ¼À ªÀUÀð

1) IgG

2) IgA

3) Ig M

4) Ig D

235 (19 – A )

57. Which class of antibody has the

longest serum-half life?

1) IgA

2) IgE

3) IgG

4) IgM

58. A chemotherapy agent that cannot be

administered intrathecally

1) Cytarabine

2) Hydrocortisone

3) Methotrexate

4) Vincristine

59. The antidote for benzodiazepine

poisoning is

1) Flumazenil

2) Folic acid

3) N-acetyl cysteine

4) Pyridoxine

60. A dose of an intravenous medication

is 2 mg, and the same dose of the

medication given orally to be 4 mg

The reason for this difference is due

to

1) Bioavailability of the drug by

different routes is different

2) Distribution of the drug by

different route is different

3) Elimination of the drug by

different route is different

4) Metabolism of the drug by

different route is different

61. The treatment of choice for

controlling seizures is

1) Lorazepam IV

2) Phenytoin IV

3) Midazolam IV

4) Diazepam IV

62. In Atrial arrhythmias, the ectopic rate

of discharge is 220-300/min, this is

referred as

1) Tachyarrhythmias

2) Atrial tachycardia

3) Atrial flutter

4) Atrial fibrillation

63. Warfarin sodium is a racemic mixture

of 2 isomers, R and S The respective

half life of these isomers are

1) R - 35 hours, S - 50 hours

2) R - 50 hours, S - 35 hours

3) R - 38 hours, S - 47 hours

4) R - 47 hours, S - 38 hours

64. The class of Immunoglobulins which

provides mucosal immunity is

1) IgG

2) IgA

3) Ig M

4) Ig D

235 (20 – A )

65. aQvÁì ¥ÀæAiÀÄvÀßzÀ ¥ÁæªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß “xÉgÁ¦ÖPï C£ÉéõÀPÀ CzsÀåAiÀÄ£À” ªÁVzÀÄÝ

1) ¥ÁæªÀ¸ÉÜ 0

2) ¥ÁæªÀ¸ÉÜ 1

3) ¥ÁæªÀ¸ÉÜ 2

4) ¥ÁæªÀ¸ÉÜ 3

66. UÁrð£É¯Á ªÁåV£Á°¸ïUÉ «gÀÄzÀÞªÁV ¤ÃqÀĪÀAvÀºÀ ¥Àæw ¸ÀÆPÀëöäfë ªÀÄzÀÄÝ

1) ¥É¤ì°£ï f

2) ¹¥ÉÆæ¥sÁèQì£ï

3) CfvÉÆæªÉÄʹ£ï

4) ªÉÄmÉÆæäqÀeÉÆïï

67. £Á£ïjãÀ¯ï QæAiÀiÁ «£Áå¸À¢AzÀ «¯Éà ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¥Àæw ¸ÀÆPÀëöäfë PÁgÀPÀ

1) CªÀÄAnr£ï

2) ¥Á°«ÄQì£ïì

3) ¸É®¥ÉgÀ eÉÆãï

4) PÉÆð¹Ö£ï

68. C«Ä£ÉÆÃjAiÀiÁ F PÉÆgÀvɬÄAzÀ GAmÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

1) xÉÊgÁAiÀiïØ ¥ÀæZÉÆÃzÀPÀ ºÁªÉÆðãÀÄ

2) UÉÆ£ÁqÉÆÃmÉÆæ¦ü£ïì

3) ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉ ºÁªÉÆð£ÀÄ

4) Cræ£ÉÆÃPÁnðPÉÆmÉÆæ¦Pï ºÁªÉÆð£ÀÄ

69. ©ÃmÁ ¯ÁåPÀÖªÀiï ¥Àæw fêÀPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀiÁ ªÀzsÀð£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ©üwÛ UÉÆÃqÉAiÀÄ ¸ÀA±ÉèõÀuÉAiÀÄ ________AiÉÆA¢UÉ CqÀØ §AzÀÄ vÀ¦à ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

1) mÁæ£ïì PÁ¨ÁðQì¯ÉõÀ£ï

2) mÁæ£ïìUÉèöÊPÉÆïÉõÀ£ï

3) mÁæ£Àì«ÄqÉõÀ£ï

4) mÁæ£ïì ¥É¦ÖqÉõÀ£ï

70. ¥sÉƸÉÆáªÉÄʹ£ï UÁæªÀiï ¥Á¹nªï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÁæªÀiï £ÉUÉnªï fëUÀ¼À ¥ÀæwAiÀiÁV ¸ÀQæAiÀĪÁVgÀ®Ä ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ PÀ¤µÀ× ¸ÁgÀvÉ

1) 100 mcg/ml

2) 125 mcg/ml

3) 150 mcg/ml

4) 175 mcg/ml

71. ²°ÃAzsÀæUÀ¼À°è ¥Àæw ²°ÃA¢üæPÁgÀPÀªÀÅ RNA/DNA ¸ÀA±ÉèõÀuÉAiÉÆA¢UÉ CrØ¥Àr¸ÀĪÀAvÀºÀzÀÄ

1) l©ð£À¥sïä

2) DA¥sÉÆmÉj¹£ï ©

3) ¥sÀÄè¸ÉÊmÉÆù£ï

4) QÃmÉÆÃPÉÆ£ÀeÉÆïï

235 (21 – A )

65. The phase of a clinical trial referred

as “Therapeutic exploratory study” is

1) Phase 0

2) Phase 1

3) Phase 2

4) Phase 3

66. The antimicrobial drug of choice

against Gardenela Vaginalis is

1) Pencillin G

2) Ciprofloxacin

3) Azithromycin

4) Metronidazole

67. The antimicrobial agent cleared by

non-renal mechanism is

1) Amantadine

2) Polymyxins

3) Celaperazone

4) Colistin

68. Amenorrhoea is due to the deficiency

of

1) Thyroid stimulating hormone

2) Gonadotrophins

3) Growth hormone

4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

69. Beta lactum antibiotics inhibit the

bacterial growth by interfering with

__________ of cellwall synthesis

1) Transcarboxylation

2) Transglycolation

3) Transamidation

4) Transpeptidation

70. Fosfomycin is active against gram

positive and gram negative organisms

at a minimum concentration

1) 100 mcg/ml

2) 125 mcg/ml

3) 150 mcg/ml

4) 175 mcg/ml

71. The antifungal agent which interferes

with RNA/ DNA synthesis in fungi is

1) Terbinafme

2) Amphotericin B

3) Flucytosine

4) Ketoconazole

235 (22 – A )

72. CqÉ¥sÉÆ«gï r¦ªÉÇQì¯ï£ÀÄß PÁæ¤Pï ºÉ¦mÉÊn¸ï-© UÉ ¤ÃqÀĪÀAvÀºÀzÀÄ EzÀgÀ ²¥sÁgÀ¸ÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁzÀ ªÀAiÀĸÀÌgÀ C£ÀÄ¥ÀæªÀiÁt

1) 10 mg qd

2) 15 mg qd

3) 20 mg qd

4) 25 mg qd

73. mÉÆ¥ÉÆÃL¸ÉƪÉÄgÉøï Qté II ªÀ£ÀÄß ¥Àæw§A¢ü¸ÀĪÀ ªÀÄzÀÄÝ(Gi ¤AzÀ S ¥ÁæªÀ¸ÉÜ)

1) Ej£ÉÆÃmÉPÀ£ï

2) ¥Áå¹èmÁPÉì¯ï

3) PÉÆèÃ¥sÁgÀ©£ï

4) JmÉÆ¥ÉƸÉÊqï

74. D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ï£À ¥Àæ±À¸ÀÛç ¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀiÁ £Á±ÀPÀ ¸ÁgÀvÉAiÀÄÄ ¤Ãj£ÉÆA¢UÉ _________UÁvÁæ£ÀĸÁgÀªÁV

1) 80-90%

2) 70-80%

3) 70-90%

4) 60-90%

75. ºÉÊqÉÆæd£ï ¥ÉgÁPÉìöÊr£À (VPHP) D« ¥ÁæªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ°è, vÀA¥ÁzÀ ¸ÉÊj¯ÉAmï CwPÀrªÉÄ ¸ÁgÀvÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀQæAiÀĪÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ

1) 4 mg/L

2) 8 mg/L

3) 12 mg/L

4) 16 mg/L

76. rJ£ïJ ¸ÀÄgÀĽAiÀÄ ¥Àæw (¦Zï) wgÀÄ«£À UÁvÀæ

1) 30 A0

2) 32 A0

3) 34 A0

4) 36 A0

77. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ C¥ÀAiÀiÁð¥ÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀvÉÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉë

1) ¯Á¸ÉUÀß ¥ÀjÃPÉë

2) ¨ÉÃAiÀÄgï ¥ÀjÃPÉë

3) ªÀiÁ°µï ¥ÀjÃPÉë

4) ¸É°é£Á¥sï ¥ÀjÃPÉë

78. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ QÃmÉÆøï¤AzÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D¯ÉÆØøï UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀævÉåÃQ¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉë

1) N¸ÀeÉÆÃ£ï ¥ÀjÃPÉë

2) ¨É£ÉrPïÖ ¥ÀjÃPÉë

3) ¸É°é£Á¥sïì ¥ÀjÃPÉë

4) ¨Ágï¥sÁAiÀiïØ÷ ¥ÀjÃPÉë

79. qÉÊCeÉÆÃn£ÉʸÉõÀ£ï QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ°è C¤°£ï ¸À°èPÉAiÀiÁzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀiÁUÀĪÀ GvÀà£Àß

1) ¦ü£ÉÊ¯ï ºÉÊqÁæf£ï ºÉÊqÉÆæÃPÉÆèÃgÉÊqÀÄ ®ªÀt

2) ¨ÉAfãï qÀAiÀÄeÉÆäAiÀĪÀiï ®ªÀt

3) CeÉÆà gÀAUÀÄ ®ªÀt

4) ºÉÊqÀæfÃ£ï ºÉÊqÉÆæPÉÆèÃgÉÊqÀÄ ®ªÀt

235 (23 – A )

72. The recommended adult dose of

Adefovir Dipivoxil for the treatment

of Chronic Hepatitis B is

1) 10 mg qd

2) 15 mg qd

3) 20 mg qd

4) 25 mg qd

73. The drug which inhibits the enzyme

Topoisomerase II (Gi to S phase)

1) Irinotecan

2) Paclitaxel

3) Clofarabine

4) Etoposide

74. The optimum bactericidal

concentration of alcohol is ______ by

volume in water

1) 80-90%

2) 70-80%

3) 70-90%

4) 60-90%

75. Vapour phase Hydrogen peroxide

(VPHP), a cold gaseous sterilant is

active at very low concentration of

1) 4 mg/L

2) 8 mg/L

3) 12 mg/L

4) 16 mg/L

76. The size of each turn (pitch) of DNA

helix is

1) 30 A0

2) 32 A0

3) 34 A0

4) 36 A0

77. Which of the following test is used to

identify unsaturation

1) Lassaigne test

2) Bayer’s test

3) Molisch test

4) Selwinoff’s test

78. Which of the following test

distinguishes ketose from aldose

1) Osazone test

2) Benedict’s test

3) Selwinoff’s test

4) Barfoed’s test

79. The product formed after submitting

aniline for diazotisation reaction is

1) Phenyl hydrazine hydrochloride

salt

2) Benzene diazonium salt

3) Azo dye salt

4) Hydrazine hydrochloride salt

235 (24 – A )

80. ¥ÀAiÀiÁð¥ÀÛ C°¥sÁånPï ºÉÊqÉÆæÃPÁ§ð£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀÄÄ« ±ÀÈAUÀªÀ£ÀÄß F ªÀ®AiÀÄzÀ°è ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ

1) 150 - 200 nm

2) 200- 300 nm

3) 400 - 600 nm

4) 300 - 400 nm

81. C¤® PÉÆæêÀiÁmÉÆÃUÁæ¦üAiÀÄ°è E¯ÉPÁÖç£ÀÄ ¸ÉgÉ »rAiÀÄĪÀ ±ÉÆÃzsÀPÀªÀÅ C¢üPÀ ¸ÀAªÉâvÀªÁVgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ F UÀÄA¥ÀÄ EgÀĪÀ CtÄUÀ¼À°è

1) D¯ÉÆ̺Á¯ïì

2) CªÉÄÊ£ïì

3) ºÉÊqÉÆæPÁ§ð£ïì

4) ºÁå¯ÉÆÃd£ïì

82. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À ¥ÉÊQ §Æ¢gÀ»vÀªÀ®èzÀ ªÁmïªÀÄ£ï ¦ü®Ögï ¥ÀvÀæ EzÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆgÀvÀÄ¥Àr¹

1) 40

2) 41

3) 43

4) 44

83. C¤®PÉÆæªÀÄmÉÆÃUÁæ¥sï£À «ÄÃlgï GzÀÝzÀ ¸ÀÛA sÀzÀ°è, JZïEn¦ 1 cm EzÀÝgÉ n £À ¨É¯É 1) 1 2) 10 3) 100 4) 1000

84. AiÀÄÄ£ÉÊmÉqï ¸ÉÖÃmïìPÉÆÃqï D¥sï ¥ÉqÀgÀ¯ï gÉUÀÆå¯ÉõÀ£ïì (¹J¥sïDgï) ¸ÀgÀPÀÄ GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀzÀÞwUÀ¼À §UÉÎ w½¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ EzÀÄ

1) 21 CFR 208 & 209

2) 21 CFR 208 & 210

3) 21 CFR 210 & 211

4) 21 CFR 210 & 216

85. EArAiÀÄ£ï ¥sÁ«ÄðPÉÆæAiÀiÁzÀ ªÀÄÆgÀ£Éà DªÀÈwÛ 1985gÀ°è ¥ÀæPÀlªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ JgÀqÀ£ÉAiÀÄ C¢üPÀ ¸ÉÃ¥ÀðqÉ / ¥ÀÄgÀªÀt L¦ 1985PÉÌ, EzÀÄ ¥ÀæPÀlªÁzÀ ªÀµÀð

1) 1989 2) 1991 3) 1993 4) 1995

86. 30% UÁvÀæ/UÁvÀæ D¯ÉÆÌúÁ¯ï£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆæ¥sï §®ªÁV ¥ÀjªÀwð¹zÁUÀ

1) +47.01°o/p

2) +47.50°o/p

3) -47.01°u/p

4) -47.50°u/p

87. 1% ¨ÉÆÃjPï DªÀÄèzÀ L¸ÉÆÃC¸ÁänPïzÉÆA¢UÉ gÀPÀÛzÀ ¥Áè¸ÀäUÉ ¨ÉgÉAiÀÄĪÀ zÁæªÀt vÀAiÀiÁj¸À®Ä ¨ÉÃPÁUÀĪÀ ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀÄA PÉÆèÃgÉÊqÀÄ zÁæªÀt ¸ÁgÀvÉ [1% NaCl £À WÀ¤ÃPÀgÀt ©AzÀÄ =

-0.576°C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 1% ¨ÉÆÃjPï DªÀÄè =

-0.288°C] 1) 0.422%w/v

2) 0.402%w/v

3) 1.039%w/v

4) 0.319%w/v

235 (25 – A )

80. Saturated aliphatic hydrocarbons give

UV peak in the following region

1) 150 - 200 nm

2) 200- 300 nm

3) 400 - 600 nm

4) 300 - 400 nm

81. Gas chromatography, Electron

capture detector is highly sensitive

towards molecules having

1) Alcohols

2) Amines

3) Hydrocarbons

4) Halogens

82. All the following are ashless

whatman filter papers except

1) 40

2) 41

3) 43

4) 44

83. For a column of a meter length (Gas

chromatograph), if the HETP is 1 cm,

then “n” value is

1) 1

2) 10

3) 100

4) 1000

84. The United States Code of Federal

Regulations (CFR) which deals with

Good Manufacturing practices is

1) 21 CFR 208 & 209

2) 21 CFR 208 & 210

3) 21 CFR 210 & 211

4) 21 CFR 210 & 216

85. Third edition of Indian

Pharmacopoeia was published in the

year 1985, the second

addendum/supplement for IP 1985

was published in the year

1) 1989

2) 1991

3) 1993

4) 1995

86. Convert 30% v/v alcohol into proof

strength

1) +47.01°o/p

2) +47.50°o/p

3) -47.01°u/p

4) -47.50°u/p

87. Find the concentration of NaCl

required to make 1% solution of

Boric acid iso-osmotic with blood

plasma [Freezing point of 1% NaCl =

-0.576°C and 1% Boric Acid =

-0.288°C]

1) 0.422%w/v

2) 0.402%w/v

3) 1.039%w/v

4) 0.319%w/v

235 (26 – A )

88. ©-§UÉ f®n£ï£À L¸ÉÆà J¯ÉQÖçPï ©AzÀÄ

1) 4.7-5.3

2) 5.0-6.5

3) 4.5-5.5

4) 4.8-5.5

89. £ÉÊmÉÆæ¨ÉAfãï jÃeÉAmï C£ÀÄß EzÀgÀ C¸ÉìÃUÉ ¸ÉÃj¸À¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

1) vÁªÀÄæzÀ ¸À¯ÉáÃlÄ

2) CªÉÆäAiÀĪÀiï PÉÆèÃgÉÊqÀÄ

3) ºÉÊqÉÆæd£ï ¥ÉgÁPÉìöÊqÀÄ

4) ¨ÉÆÃjPï DªÀÄè

90. ªÀiÁvÉæAiÀÄ ªÉÄïÉäöÊAiÀÄ°è C¸ÀªÀĪÁV §tÚ ºÀgÀrgÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ£ÀÄߪÀgÀÄ

1) §Æè«ÄAUï

2) ¦nAUï

3) ©è¸ÀÖjAUï

4) ªÉÆnèAUï

91. ªÀiÁvÉæ gÀZÀ£ÉUÉ §¼ÀPÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ZÀgÀ© JuÉÚAiÀÄÄ F «ÄwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß «ÄÃgÀPÀÆqÀzÀÄ

1) 0.5%w/w

2) 1%w/w

3) 1.5%w/w

4) 2%w/w

92. F ¥ÉÊQ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ PÀ¤µÀ× ±ÀQÛ PÀ£ï¥sÁªÉÄÃð±À£ï (gÀZÀ£Á PÀæªÀÄ)?

1) eÁUÀwPÀ «Ä¤ªÀiÁ PÀ£ï¥sÁªÉÄÃðµÀ£ï (gÀZÀ£ÁPÀæªÀÄ)

2) ¸ÀܽÃAiÀÄ «Ä¤ªÀiÁ PÀ£ï¥sÁªÉÄÃðµÀ£ï (gÀZÀ£ÁPÀæªÀÄ)

3) eÉÊ«QæAiÉÄ PÀ£ï¥sÁªÉÄÃðµÀ£ï (gÀZÀ£ÁPÀæªÀÄ)

4) F ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ

93. ¥ÉÊgÉÆÃd¤ß£À CvÀåAvÀ ¸ÀÄ¥ÀÛgÀÆ¥À«gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ E°è

1) UÁæªÀiï ¥Á¹nªï ¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀiÁ

2) UÁæªÀiï £ÉUÉnªï ¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀiÁ

3) ²°ÃAzsÀæ

4) ªÉÊgÀ¸ï

94. HLB ¨É¯É8-18gÀ £ÀqÀÄªÉ EgÀĪÀ ¸À¥sÁåðPÉÖAmï G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛªÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ »ÃUÉ E°è 1) ªÀiÁdðPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ 2) vÉêÀPÁgÀPÀ 3) £ÉÆgÉ ¥ÀæwgÉÆÃzsÀPÀ 4) ¤Ãj£À°è JªÀÄ°ì¥sÉÊAiÀÄgï£À°è£À JuÉÚ

95. D - ¨É¯É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ F0 ¨É¯É ¥ÀzÀPÀæªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß F §UÉAiÀÄ ¸ÉÖj¯ÉʸÉõÀ£ï C£ÀÄß ¥ÉÃgÉAmïgÀ¯ï GvÀà£ÀßUÀ½UÉ §¼À¸À¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. 1) C¤°ÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀÖj¯ÉÖöʸÉõÀ£ï 2) DmÉÆæÃPÉèêï£À°è ©¹AiÀiÁUÀÄ«PÉ 3) ±ÉÆÃzsÀ£É 4) nAqÀ°ÃPÀgÀt

235 (27 – A )

88. The isoelectric point of Type B

gelatin is

1) 4.7-5.3

2) 5.0-6.5

3) 4.5-5.5

4) 4.8-5.5

89. Nitrobenzene reagent is added in the

assay of

1) Copper sulphate

2) Ammonium Chloride

3) Hydrogen Peroxide

4) Boric acid

90. The unequal distribution of colour on

tablet surface is known as

1) Blooming

2) Pitting

3) Blistering

4) Mottling

91. The amount of lubricants used in a

tablet formulations should not exceed

1) 0.5%w/w

2) 1%w/w

3) 1.5%w/w

4) 2%w/w

92. Which among the following is the

lowest energy conformation

1) Global minima conformation

2) Local minima conformation

3) Bioactive conformation

4) All the above

93. The most potent form of pyrogens are

found in

1) Gram positive bacteria

2) Gram negative bacteria

3) Fungi

4) Virus

94. A surfactant having an HLB value

between 8 and 18 is likely to be

useful for

1) Detergents

2) Wetting agent

3) Anti foaming agent

4) Oil in water emulsifier

95. D-value and F0 value terminology is

associated with the following type of

sterilization process of parenteral

products

1) Gaseous sterilization

2) Heating in autoclave

3) Filtration

4) Tyndallisation

235 (28 – A )

96. ¸ÀtÚ £ÀAiÀĪÁzÀ PÀtUÀ¼À vÀÄAvÀÄgÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä OµÀ¢üAiÀÄ zÁæªÀtUÀ¼ÀÄ CxÀªÁ ¤®A§£ÉUÀ¼À°è C¢üPÀ C£ÀÄ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ªÀÄzÀÄÝ ¤ÃqÀ®Ä §¼ÀPÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£À

1) ¥sÉgÀÆå¯ï

2) DPÀÄÑAiÉÄÃlgï

3) «ÄÃlgïØ KgÉÆøÁ¯ïUÀ¼ÀÄ

4) £É§Ä¯ÉʸÀgï

97. ªÀiÁvÉæ ¯ÉÃ¥À£À ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄAiÀÄ°è ¯ÉÃ¥À£ÀzÀ C¸ÀªÀÄ¥ÀðPÀ ºÀgÀqÀÄ«PÉ MtV¸ÀĪÀ ªÉÆzÀ®Ä DzÀgÉ F ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ DUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

1) DgÉÃAeï ¦Ã¯ï ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ

2) §Æè«ÄAUï ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ

3) ©è¸ÀÖjAUï ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ

4) PÀĽ©Ã¼ÀĪÀ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ

98. ¥ÀÄr ªÀiÁzÀjAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ‘¸ÁzsÁgÀt £ÀÄtÄ¥ÀÄ’ JAzÀÄ ºÉüÀ¨ÉÃPÁzÀgÉ D ¥ÀÄrAiÀÄ J¯Áè PÀtUÀ¼ÀÄ EzÀgÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ºÁAiÀĨÉÃPÀÄ.

1) dgÀr ¸ÀASÉå 10

2) dgÀr ¸ÀASÉå 20

3) dgÀr ¸ÀASÉå 22

4) dgÀr ¸ÀASÉå 40

99. ¥ÀgÁ¸ÀgÀt ºÉÆgÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÀgÀĽUÉ

¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ ¤ÃgÀ£ÀÄß C¢üPÀ

¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ°è »Ãj ºÉZÀѼÀUÉƽ¹,

¥Éj¸ÁÖ°ì¸ï£ÀÄß ¥ÀæZÉÆâ¸ÀĪÀ PÁgÀPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

1) ¹ÖªÀÄÄå¯ÉAmïì

2) §¯ïÌ gÉÃZÀPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

3) ZÀgÀ©UÀ¼ÀÄ

4) ¸À¯ÉÊ£ï PÉxÀnðPïì

100. zÀÄåw¹ÜgÀvÁ CzsÀåAiÀÄ£ÀUÀ¼À°è OµÀ¢üÃAiÀÄ

GvÀà£ÀߪÀÅ MmÁÖgÉ ¨É¼ÀQUÉ MrØPÉÆAqÀÄ

ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀªÀÄUÀæªÁV MrØPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ

C£ÀÄPÀæªÀĪÁV EzÀQÌAvÀ PÀrªÉÄ EgÀ¨ÁgÀzÀÄ

1) 1200000 Lux WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀÄ & 200

ªÁmï WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀÄ/m3

2) 1200000 Lux WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀÄ & 300

ªÁmï WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀÄ/m3

3) 1000000 Lux WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀÄ & 200

ªÁmï WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀÄ/m3

4) 1000000 Lux WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀÄ & 300

ªÁmï WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀÄ/m3

235 (29 – A )

96. The device used to generate a mist of

fine particles from a drug solution or

suspension to deliver high doses of

drug is

1) Ferrule

2) Actuator

3) Metered aerosols

4) Nebulizer

97. In the tablet coating process,

inadequate spreading of the coating

solution before drying causes

1) Orange peel effect

2) Blooming effect

3) Blistering effect

4) Cratering effect

98. A powder sample is said to

‘‘Moderately fine” if all the particles

of the powder pass through

1) Sieve No. 10

2) Sieve No. 20

3) Sieve No. 22

4) Sieve No. 40

99. The agents which increase the

osmotic load of intestine by absorbing

large quantities of water and thereby

stimulate peristalsis is

1) Stimulants

2) Bulk purgatives

3) Lubricants

4) Saline cathartics

100. During photostability studies of a

pharmaceutical product, the overall

light exposure and integrated

exposure should be NOT LESS

THAN (respectively)

1) 1200000 Lux hours & 200 watt

hours/m3

2) 1200000 Lux hours & 300 watt

hours/m3

3) 1000000 Lux hours & 200 watt

hours/m3

4) 1000000 Lux hours & 300 watt

hours/m3

235 (30 – A )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

235 (31 – A )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

235 (32 – A )

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more

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choose ONLY ONE RESPONSE for each question.

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Kannada Version, please refer to the English Version of the questions. Please note that in

case of any confusion the English Version of the Question Booklet is final.

WÜÊÜá¯Ô : ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ PܮܰvÜ BÊÜ꣤¿áá D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ÊÜááí»ÝWܨÜÈÉ ÊÜáá©ÅÓÜƳqr æ.

A SUBJECT CODE : 235

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